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Pass the PMI CAPM CAPM Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 3 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 101-150 out of questions
Questions # 101:

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience


B.

Influence/impact


C.

Power/interest


D.

Power/influence


Expert Solution
Questions # 102:

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart


B.

Flowchart


C.

Checksheet


D.

Pareto diagram


Expert Solution
Questions # 103:

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.


B.

Validated changes.


C.

The change log.


D.

The requirements traceability matrix.


Expert Solution
Questions # 104:

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer


B.

Sponsor


C.

Seller


D.

Functional manager


Expert Solution
Questions # 105:

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).


B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).


C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).


D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).


Expert Solution
Questions # 106:

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams


B.

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix


C.

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts


D.

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts


Expert Solution
Questions # 107:

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Question # 107


Expert Solution
Questions # 108:

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis


B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty


C.

Data analysis and risk audits


D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system


Expert Solution
Questions # 109:

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

Options:

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.


B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.


C.

Create a social network and post news there.


D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.


Expert Solution
Questions # 110:

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

Options:

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.


B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.


C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.


D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.


Expert Solution
Questions # 111:

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

Options:

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog


B.

On-demand scheduling


C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog


D.

Defining Iterative activities


Expert Solution
Questions # 112:

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget


B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations


C.

Control Quality and Control Costs


D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management


Expert Solution
Questions # 113:

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

What-if scenario analysis


B.

Simulation


C.

Alternatives analysis


D.

Reserve analysis


Expert Solution
Questions # 114:

A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests


B.

Verified deliverables


C.

Lessons learned


D.

Work performance data


Expert Solution
Questions # 115:

Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints for project execution and monitoring and controlling relates to which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule


B.

Control Schedule


C.

Estimate Activity Durations


D.

Define Activities


Expert Solution
Questions # 116:

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality


B.

Plan Quality Management


C.

Control Quality


D.

Plan Scope Management


Expert Solution
Questions # 117:

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Question # 117


Expert Solution
Questions # 118:

Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project charter, business documents, and project management plan


B.

Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan


C.

Project charter, business case, and project management plan


D.

Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan


Expert Solution
Questions # 119:

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

Options:

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.


B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.


C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.


D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.


Expert Solution
Questions # 120:

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.


B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.


C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.


D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.


Expert Solution
Questions # 121:

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.


B.

Estimate Activity Durations,


C.

Develop Schedule.


D.

Control Schedule.


Expert Solution
Questions # 122:

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.


B.

nominal group technique.


C.

Delphi technique,


D.

idea/mind mapping technique.


Expert Solution
Questions # 123:

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.


B.

Monitor and Control Risks.


C.

Plan Risk Management.


D.

Report Performance.


Expert Solution
Questions # 124:

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.


B.

success.


C.

deadline.


D.

scope.


Expert Solution
Questions # 125:

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.


B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.


C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.


D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.


Expert Solution
Questions # 126:

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate


B.

Transfer


C.

Exploit


D.

Avoid


Expert Solution
Questions # 127:

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables


B.

Organizational process assets updates


C.

Managing stakeholder expectations


D.

Performance reports


Expert Solution
Questions # 128:

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied


B.

Keep informed


C.

Manage closely


D.

Monitor


Expert Solution
Questions # 129:

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.


B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.


C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,


D.

work to be completed next.


Expert Solution
Questions # 130:

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.


B.

quality metrics.


C.

change requests,


D.

Ishikawa diagrams.


Expert Solution
Questions # 131:

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline


B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline


C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline


D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline


Expert Solution
Questions # 132:

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking


B.

Training


C.

Negotiation


D.

Issue log


Expert Solution
Questions # 133:

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive


B.

Zero


C.

Negative


D.

Greater than one


Expert Solution
Questions # 134:

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion


B.

Cost performance


C.

Schedule performance


D.

To-complete performance


Expert Solution
Questions # 135:

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)


B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)


C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)


D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)


Expert Solution
Questions # 136:

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.


B.

response,


C.

perception.


D.

impact.


Expert Solution
Questions # 137:

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor


B.

Project manager


C.

Program manager


D.

Project management office (PMO)


Expert Solution
Questions # 138:

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Question # 138

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming


B.

Precedence diagramming


C.

Project schedule network diagramming


D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming


Expert Solution
Questions # 139:

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement


B.

Cost performance baseline


C.

Benchmarking


D.

Cost of quality


Expert Solution
Questions # 140:

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis


B.

Three-point estimate


C.

Modeling and simulation


D.

Expected monetary value analysis


Expert Solution
Questions # 141:

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share


B.

Accept


C.

Mitigate


D.

Transfer


Expert Solution
Questions # 142:

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid


B.

Accept


C.

Mitigate


D.

Exploit


Expert Solution
Questions # 143:

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.


B.

move together in batches,


C.

overlap and interact.


D.

move in a sequence.


Expert Solution
Questions # 144:

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800


B.

$1000


C.

$1250


D.

$1800


Expert Solution
Questions # 145:

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate


B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept


C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept


D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept


Expert Solution
Questions # 146:

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports


B.

Project charter


C.

Outputs from planning processes


D.

Enterprise environmental factors


Expert Solution
Questions # 147:

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.


B.

baseline.


C.

Create WBS.


D.

decomposition.


Expert Solution
Questions # 148:

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.


B.

resource calendar.


C.

human resource plan.


D.

Develop Project Team process.


Expert Solution
Questions # 149:

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two


B.

Four


C.

Five


D.

Twelve


Expert Solution
Questions # 150:

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness


B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics


C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge


D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills


Expert Solution
Viewing page 3 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 101-150 out of questions