Pass the PMI CAPM CAPM Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Viewing questions 301-350 out of questions
Questions # 301:

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.


B.

move together in batches,


C.

overlap and interact.


D.

move in a sequence.


Expert Solution
Questions # 302:

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix


B.

Project scope statement


C.

WBS dictionary


D.

Work performance measurements


Expert Solution
Questions # 303:

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.


B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.


C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.


D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.


Expert Solution
Questions # 304:

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)


B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)


C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)


D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)


Expert Solution
Questions # 305:

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800


B.

$1000


C.

$1250


D.

$1800


Expert Solution
Questions # 306:

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning


B.

Executing


C.

Monitoring and Controlling


D.

Closing


Expert Solution
Questions # 307:

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables


B.

Organizational process assets updates


C.

Managing stakeholder expectations


D.

Performance reports


Expert Solution
Questions # 308:

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.


B.

baseline.


C.

Create WBS.


D.

decomposition.


Expert Solution
Questions # 309:

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)


B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)


C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)


D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)


Expert Solution
Questions # 310:

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming


B.

Focus groups


C.

Affinity diagram


D.

Plurality


Expert Solution
Questions # 311:

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work


B.

Selected sellers


C.

Risk register updates


D.

Teaming agreements


Expert Solution
Questions # 312:

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement


B.

Cost performance baseline


C.

Benchmarking


D.

Cost of quality


Expert Solution
Questions # 313:

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.


B.

Published estimating data.


C.

Resource calendars.


D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).


Expert Solution
Questions # 314:

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.


B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.


C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.


D.

The product is needed in 250 days.


Expert Solution
Questions # 315:

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports


B.

Project charter


C.

Outputs from planning processes


D.

Enterprise environmental factors


Expert Solution
Questions # 316:

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.


B.

known risk and unknown risk.


C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.


D.

varying degrees of risk.


Expert Solution
Questions # 317:

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement


B.

Project charter


C.

Project plan


D.

Project schedule


Expert Solution
Questions # 318:

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables


B.

Change requests


C.

Project management plan updates


D.

Benchmarking


Expert Solution
Questions # 319:

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.


B.

quality metrics.


C.

change requests,


D.

Ishikawa diagrams.


Expert Solution
Questions # 320:

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.


B.

nominal group technique.


C.

Delphi technique,


D.

idea/mind mapping technique.


Expert Solution
Questions # 321:

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).


B.

schedule target.


C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).


D.

earned value baseline.


Expert Solution
Questions # 322:

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs


B.

Determine Budget


C.

Estimate Costs


D.

Control Budget


Expert Solution
Questions # 323:

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope


B.

Collect Requirements


C.

Create WBS


D.

Define Scope


Expert Solution
Questions # 324:

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.


B.

resource calendar.


C.

human resource plan.


D.

Develop Project Team process.


Expert Solution
Questions # 325:

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate


B.

Transfer


C.

Exploit


D.

Avoid


Expert Solution
Questions # 326:

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor


B.

Project manager


C.

Program manager


D.

Project management office (PMO)


Expert Solution
Questions # 327:

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline


B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline


C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline


D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline


Expert Solution
Questions # 328:

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share


B.

Accept


C.

Mitigate


D.

Transfer


Expert Solution
Questions # 329:

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.


B.

The critical path will have positive total float.


C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.


D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.


Expert Solution
Questions # 330:

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness


B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics


C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge


D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills


Expert Solution
Questions # 331:

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.


B.

success.


C.

deadline.


D.

scope.


Expert Solution
Questions # 332:

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied


B.

Keep informed


C.

Manage closely


D.

Monitor


Expert Solution
Questions # 333:

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV


B.

SPI


C.

PV


D.

ETC


Expert Solution
Questions # 334:

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.


B.

Monitor and Control Risks.


C.

Plan Risk Management.


D.

Report Performance.


Expert Solution
Questions # 335:

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints


B.

Internal business needs


C.

Budget


D.

Schedule


Expert Solution
Questions # 336:

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking


B.

Training


C.

Negotiation


D.

Issue log


Expert Solution
Questions # 337:

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.


B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.


C.

on schedule.


D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.


Expert Solution
Questions # 338:

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram


B.

Control chart


C.

Run chart


D.

Pareto chart


Expert Solution
Questions # 339:

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

prototypes.


B.

expert judgment.


C.

alternatives identification.


D.

product analysis.


Expert Solution
Questions # 340:

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan


B.

Human resource plan


C.

Quality management plan


D.

Procurement management plan


Expert Solution
Questions # 341:

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.


B.

Perform Quality Assurance.


C.

Perform Quality Control.


D.

Total Quality Management.


Expert Solution
Questions # 342:

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming


B.

Storming


C.

Norming


D.

Performing


Expert Solution
Questions # 343:

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure


B.

Staffing management plan


C.

Project organizational chart


D.

Scope management plan


Expert Solution
Questions # 344:

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Requested changes


B.

Approved change requests


C.

Work performance information


D.

Implemented defect repair


Expert Solution
Questions # 345:

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push


B.

Pull


C.

Interactive


D.

Iterative


Expert Solution
Questions # 346:

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.


B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.


C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.


D.

Removal of project risk.


Expert Solution
Questions # 347:

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities


B.

Performing the activities included in the plan


C.

Developing and maintaining the plan


D.

Execution of deliverables


Expert Solution
Questions # 348:

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.


B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.


C.

Describe the project in great detail.


D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.


Expert Solution
Questions # 349:

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation


B.

Roles and responsibilities


C.

Recognition and rewards


D.

Prizing and promoting


Expert Solution
Questions # 350:

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information


B.

Company structure and market conditions


C.

Commercial information and company structure


D.

Existing human resources and market conditions


Expert Solution
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Viewing questions 301-350 out of questions