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Pass the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions
Questions # 201:

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Question # 201


Expert Solution
Questions # 202:

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication


B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload


C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them


D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands


Expert Solution
Questions # 203:

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11


B.

1,5,10


C.

1,2,3


D.

5,6,7


Expert Solution
Questions # 204:

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override


B.

enable RX-SOP


C.

enable DTIM


D.

enable Band Select


Expert Solution
Questions # 205:

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions


B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains


C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.


D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host


E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies


Expert Solution
Questions # 206:

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management


B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management


C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options


D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management


Expert Solution
Questions # 207:

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.

port-to-multipoint


B.

broadcast


C.

point-to-point


D.

nonbroadcast


Expert Solution
Questions # 208:

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B


B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B


C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B


D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B


Expert Solution
Questions # 209:

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Options:

A.

policy plane


B.

management plane


C.

control plane


D.

data plane


Expert Solution
Questions # 210:

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3


B.

FC00::/7


C.

FE80::/10


D.

FF00::/12


Expert Solution
Questions # 211:

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs


B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing


C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources


D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning


E.

Reducing hardware footprint


Expert Solution
Questions # 212:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 212

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route


B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP


C.

statically assigned route


D.

route learned through EIGRP


Expert Solution
Questions # 213:

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10


B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10


C.

switchport mode trunk


D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q


Expert Solution
Questions # 214:

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 214

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Question # 214

Options:

A.

Option A


B.

Option B


C.

Option C


D.

Option D


Expert Solution
Questions # 215:

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services


B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services


C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control


D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control


Expert Solution
Questions # 216:

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber


B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections


C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding


D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections


E.

The data can pass through the cladding


Expert Solution
Questions # 217:

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP


B.

STP


C.

VTP


D.

802.10


Expert Solution
Questions # 218:

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning


B.

implement static MAC addressing.


C.

enable sticky MAC addressing


D.

implement auto MAC address learning


Expert Solution
Questions # 219:

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI


B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers


C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.


D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions


E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.


Expert Solution
Questions # 220:

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points


B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.


C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.


D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.


Expert Solution
Questions # 221:

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.


B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller


C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another


D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps


Expert Solution
Questions # 222:

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

tracks the number of active TCP connections


B.

transmits exclusively at half duplex


C.

offers link bundling to servers


D.

uses routers to create collision domains


Expert Solution
Questions # 223:

Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

Options:

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.


B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.


C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.


D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.


Expert Solution
Questions # 224:

Question # 224

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Question # 224


Expert Solution
Questions # 225:

Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0


B.

255.255.254.0


C.

255.255.255.0


D.

255.255.255.255


Expert Solution
Questions # 226:

Question # 226

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Question # 226


Expert Solution
Questions # 227:

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverses the Internet when an outbound ACL Is applied


B.

used without allocation from a regional Internet authority


C.

shared address space between an ISP and subscriber


D.

reduces the need for isolated networks


Expert Solution
Questions # 228:

Question # 228

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.


B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.


C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).


D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.


E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.


Expert Solution
Questions # 229:

A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP address of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Options:

A.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1


B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 25


C.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1


D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 20


Expert Solution
Questions # 230:

Question # 230

Question # 230

Question # 230

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.


Expert Solution
Questions # 231:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 231

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.

Local


B.

EIGRP


C.

OSPF


D.

RIP


Expert Solution
Questions # 232:

Question # 232

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92


B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91


C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91


D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93


Expert Solution
Questions # 233:

Question # 233

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2


B.

10.10.2.2


C.

10.10.3.2


D.

10.10.4.2


Expert Solution
Questions # 234:

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment


B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway


C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication


D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol


Expert Solution
Questions # 235:

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group.


B.

Increases security on the management VLAN.


C.

Rewrites the source and destination MAC address.


D.

Associates the MAC address with the port on which it is received.


Expert Solution
Questions # 236:

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.


B.

They are routable on the global internet.


C.

They use the same process for subnetting.


D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.


Expert Solution
Questions # 237:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 237

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

Question # 237

B)

Question # 237

C)

Question # 237

D)

Question # 237

Options:

A.

Option


B.

Option


C.

Option


D.

Option


Expert Solution
Questions # 238:

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.


B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.


C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.


D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.


Expert Solution
Questions # 239:

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

cloud computing


B.

virtualization


C.

application hosting


D.

containers


Expert Solution
Questions # 240:

What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

Redundant port


B.

Out-of-band


C.

Service port


D.

Wireless management


Expert Solution
Questions # 241:

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Question # 241


Expert Solution
Questions # 242:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 242

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?

Options:

A.

172.16.1.4


B.

172.16.1.1


C.

172.16.1.2


D.

172.16.1.3


Expert Solution
Questions # 243:

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information


B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence


C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses


D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol


Expert Solution
Questions # 244:

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.


B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.


C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.


D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.


E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.


Expert Solution
Questions # 245:

Question # 245

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

Options:

A.

10.12.0.5


B.

10.12.0.2


C.

10.12.0.1


D.

10.12.0.6


Expert Solution
Questions # 246:

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

provides protection against spyware


B.

eliminates network piggybacking


C.

associates a name to a wireless network


D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints


Expert Solution
Questions # 247:

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.

2


B.

5


C.

8


D.

9


Expert Solution
Questions # 248:

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.


B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.


C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.


D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.


Expert Solution
Questions # 249:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 249

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

Options:

A.

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.


B.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network.


C.

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.


D.

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.


Expert Solution
Questions # 250:

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.


B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.


C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.


D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.


Expert Solution
Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions