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Pass the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions
Questions # 201:

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

Options:

A.

location of the virtual machines within the data center environment


B.

whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines


C.

resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory


D.

support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice


Expert Solution
Questions # 202:

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 202


Expert Solution
Questions # 203:

Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.30.1


B.

10.10 105


C.

10.10.10.6


D.

192.168.201


Expert Solution
Questions # 204:

Which capability does TFTP provide?

Options:

A.

loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices


B.

provides authentication for data communications over a private data network


C.

provides encryption mechanisms for file transfer across a WAN


D.

provides secure file access within the LAN


Expert Solution
Questions # 205:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 205

What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?

Options:

A.

/25


B.

/27


C.

/28


D.

/29


Expert Solution
Questions # 206:

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.


B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.


C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network


D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.


Expert Solution
Questions # 207:

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

Options:

A.

LAG


B.

EtherChannel


C.

trunk


D.

access


Expert Solution
Questions # 208:

A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.


B.

Configure high availability and redundancy tor the access points.


C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.


D.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to It.


Expert Solution
Questions # 209:

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

Question # 209

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?


B.

Is the default gateway reachable?


C.

Is the DNS server reachable?


Expert Solution
Questions # 210:

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

Options:

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization


B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable


C.

when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses


D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet


Expert Solution
Questions # 211:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 211

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Options:

A.

1


B.

2


C.

3


D.

4


Expert Solution
Questions # 212:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 212

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

Change the Server Status to Disabled


B.

Select Enable next to Management


C.

Select Enable next to Network User


D.

Change the Support for CoA to Enabled.


Expert Solution
Questions # 213:

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

Options:

A.

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.


B.

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.


C.

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.


D.

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.


Expert Solution
Questions # 214:

Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.

Question # 214


Expert Solution
Questions # 215:

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.


B.

The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.


C.

The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.


D.

The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.


Expert Solution
Questions # 216:

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.


B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.


C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.


D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.


E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.


Expert Solution
Questions # 217:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 217

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1


B.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89


C.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171


D.

ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255


Expert Solution
Questions # 218:

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss


B.

spanning-tree loops


C.

default gateway failure


D.

BGP neighbor flapping


Expert Solution
Questions # 219:

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.

It upgrades software and restores files.


B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.


C.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.


D.

It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.


Expert Solution
Questions # 220:

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

OpenFlow


B.

NETCONF


C.

Thrift


D.

CORBA


E.

DSC


Expert Solution
Questions # 221:

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

Options:

A.

0000.5E00.010a


B.

0005.3711.0975


C.

0000.0C07.AC99


D.

0007.C070/AB01


Expert Solution
Questions # 222:

Which group of channels in the 802.11b/g/n/ax 2.4 GHz frequency bands are non-overlapping channels?

Options:

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10


B.

channels 1, 5, and 11


C.

channels 1, 6, and 10


D.

channels 1, 6, and 11


Expert Solution
Questions # 223:

Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.

Question # 223


Expert Solution
Questions # 224:

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Question # 224


Expert Solution
Questions # 225:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 225

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

Question # 225

B)

Question # 225

C)

Question # 225

D)

Question # 225

Options:

A.

Option A


B.

Option B


C.

Option C


D.

Option D


Expert Solution
Questions # 226:

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon


B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination


C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination


D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination


Expert Solution
Questions # 227:

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on


B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active


C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto


D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk


E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0


Expert Solution
Questions # 228:

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied


B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number


C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses


D.

used without tracking or registration


Expert Solution
Questions # 229:

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP


B.

STP


C.

VTP


D.

802.10


Expert Solution
Questions # 230:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 230

A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue. Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

Options:

A.

10.8.0.0/16


B.

10.8.64.0/18


C.

10.8.128.0/19


D.

10.8.138.0/24


Expert Solution
Questions # 231:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 231

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0.0/0


B.

10.56.0.1


C.

10.56.128.19


D.

Vlan57


Expert Solution
Questions # 232:

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

Options:

A.

Re-Anchor Roamed Clients


B.

OEAP Split Tunnel


C.

11ac MU-MIMO


D.

Client Band Select


Expert Solution
Questions # 233:

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.


B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.


C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.


D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.


Expert Solution
Questions # 234:

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 234


Expert Solution
Questions # 235:

What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

Options:

A.

discarding


B.

listening


C.

forwarding


D.

learning


Expert Solution
Questions # 236:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 236

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3


B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3


C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1


D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2


Expert Solution
Questions # 237:

Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

Options:

A.

SSH


B.

SNMP


C.

Kerberos


D.

Telnet


Expert Solution
Questions # 238:

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection


B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources


C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions " admin " accounts


D.

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors


Expert Solution
Questions # 239:

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Question # 239


Expert Solution
Questions # 240:

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management


B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management


C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options


D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management


Expert Solution
Questions # 241:

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Options:

A.

cost


B.

adminstrative distance


C.

metric


D.

as-path


Expert Solution
Questions # 242:

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2


B.

IKEv1


C.

IPsec


D.

MD5


Expert Solution
Questions # 243:

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Question # 243


Expert Solution
Questions # 244:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 244

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2


B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1


C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2


D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1


Expert Solution
Questions # 245:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 245

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121


B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100


C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 265.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121


D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3


Expert Solution
Questions # 246:

What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.


B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.


C.

It provides greater throughput options.


D.

It carries signals for longer distances.


E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.


Expert Solution
Questions # 247:

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 247


Expert Solution
Questions # 248:

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal


B.

1 GHz signal


C.

60 Hz signal


D.

60 GHz signal


Expert Solution
Questions # 249:

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 249

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

Question # 249

B)

Question # 249

C)

Question # 249

D)

Question # 249

Options:

A.

Option A


B.

Option B


C.

Option C


D.

Option D


Expert Solution
Questions # 250:

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast


B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40


C.

ip ospf network point-to-point


D.

ip ospf priority 0


Expert Solution
Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions