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Pass the Isaca Isaca Certification CRISC Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Viewing questions 51-100 out of questions
Questions # 51:

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)


B.

Risk heat maps


C.

Internal audit findings


D.

Periodic penetration testing


Expert Solution
Questions # 52:

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls


B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party


C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios


Expert Solution
Questions # 53:

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

Options:

A.

SWOT analysis


B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)


C.

Cost-benefit analysis


D.

Root cause analysis


Expert Solution
Questions # 54:

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

Question # 54

Options:

A.

Relative positions on the risk map


B.

Risk treatment options


C.

Capability of enterprise to implement


D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response


Expert Solution
Questions # 55:

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.


B.

business sector best practices.


C.

business process requirements.


D.

availability of automated solutions


Expert Solution
Questions # 56:

Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:

Options:

A.

possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.


B.

design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.


C.

project plan for classification of the data.


D.

summary of data protection and privacy legislation.


Expert Solution
Questions # 57:

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to focus on risk factors that could potentially affect the results of an IT initiative?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing threats and controls


B.

Assessing trends in quantitative risk analysis results


C.

Measuring and reporting qualitative risk trends


D.

Conducting stakeholder surveys


Expert Solution
Questions # 58:

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.


B.

Conduct security awareness training.


C.

Install security cameras.


D.

Require security access badges.


Expert Solution
Questions # 59:

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.


B.

Review the software development life cycle.


C.

Involve the development team in planning.


D.

Assign more developers to the project team.


Expert Solution
Questions # 60:

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures


B.

Risk and issue tracking


C.

An IT strategy committee


D.

Change and release management


Expert Solution
Questions # 61:

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

The action plans have documented schedules


B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk


C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans


D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans


Expert Solution
Questions # 62:

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

Options:

A.

capacity.


B.

appetite.


C.

management capability.


D.

treatment strategy.


Expert Solution
Questions # 63:

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

Options:

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers


B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership


C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards


D.

Implementing detection and response measures


Expert Solution
Questions # 64:

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Creating a data classification scheme


B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations


C.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results


D.

Identifying critical information assets


Expert Solution
Questions # 65:

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design


B.

A decrease in the number of key controls


C.

Changes in control ownership


D.

An increase in residual risk


Expert Solution
Questions # 66:

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

Options:

A.

risk scenarios.


B.

risk tolerance.


C.

risk policy.


D.

risk appetite.


Expert Solution
Questions # 67:

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

Options:

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies


B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments


C.

Interviews with senior management


D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports


Expert Solution
Questions # 68:

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)


B.

Risk reporting methodology


C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)


D.

Risk taxonomy


Expert Solution
Questions # 69:

Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Technical details


B.

Target completion date


C.

Treatment plan ownership


D.

Treatment plan justification


Expert Solution
Questions # 70:

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits


B.

Assigning a data custodian


C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets


D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution


Expert Solution
Questions # 71:

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

Options:

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set


B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities


C.

A well-established risk management committee


D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures


Expert Solution
Questions # 72:

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events


B.

The cost to implement the risk response


C.

Lack of data to measure threat events


D.

Monetary value of the asset


Expert Solution
Questions # 73:

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.


B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.


C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.


D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.


Expert Solution
Questions # 74:

A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:

Options:

A.

user requests and tests the change prior to production.


B.

user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.


C.

programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.


D.

programmer writes and promotes code into production.


Expert Solution
Questions # 75:

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)


B.

Risk policy requirements


C.

A risk register


D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)


Expert Solution
Questions # 76:

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy


B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance


C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies


D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization


Expert Solution
Questions # 77:

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?

Options:

A.

Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.


B.

Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.


C.

Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.


D.

Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.


Expert Solution
Questions # 78:

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services


B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management


C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business


D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing


Expert Solution
Questions # 79:

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

Options:

A.

impact due to failure of control


B.

Frequency of failure of control


C.

Contingency plan for residual risk


D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation


Expert Solution
Questions # 80:

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when performing a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Results of the last risk assessment of the vendor


B.

Inherent risk of the business process supported by the vendor


C.

Risk tolerance of the vendor


D.

Length of time since the last risk assessment of the vendor


Expert Solution
Questions # 81:

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices


B.

Placement on the risk map


C.

Degree of variances in the risk


D.

Cost of risk mitigation


Expert Solution
Questions # 82:

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis


B.

Risk assessment


C.

Heat map


D.

Risk register


Expert Solution
Questions # 83:

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.


B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.


C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.


D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.


Expert Solution
Questions # 84:

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality breach


B.

Institutional knowledge loss


C.

Intellectual property loss


D.

Unauthorized access


Expert Solution
Questions # 85:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

Options:

A.

To provide evidence of activities


B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)


C.

To ensure that changes are authorized


D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied


Expert Solution
Questions # 86:

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner


B.

Security management function


C.

IT management


D.

Enterprise risk function


Expert Solution
Questions # 87:

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

Options:

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices


B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start


C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices


D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported


Expert Solution
Questions # 88:

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Number of training sessions completed


B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score


C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff


D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback


Expert Solution
Questions # 89:

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) provides the BEST insight into the risk associated with IT systems being unable to meet the required availability service level in the future?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT systems having defined incident management service levels


B.

Percentage of IT systems having met the availability service level


C.

Percentage of IT outsourced systems having met the availability service level


D.

Percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization


Expert Solution
Questions # 90:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

It guides management in determining risk appetite.


B.

It provides management with a risk inventory.


C.

It aligns risk scenarios to business objectives.


D.

It monitors the performance of risk and control owners.


Expert Solution
Questions # 91:

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.


B.

Update spam filters


C.

Revise the acceptable use policy


D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures


Expert Solution
Questions # 92:

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

Options:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.


B.

Satisfy audit requirements.


C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.


D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.


Expert Solution
Questions # 93:

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.


B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.


C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.


D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.


Expert Solution
Questions # 94:

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.


B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.


C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.


D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT


Expert Solution
Questions # 95:

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.


B.

used for verification within the SLA.


C.

that are verified as actual incidents.


D.

resolved within the SLA.


Expert Solution
Questions # 96:

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives


B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.


C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.


D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.


Expert Solution
Questions # 97:

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Encryption policy


B.

Organization risk profile


C.

Digital rights management policy


D.

Information classification policy


Expert Solution
Questions # 98:

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer


B.

Accept


C.

Exploit


D.

Mitigate


Expert Solution
Questions # 99:

To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?

Options:

A.

business owner


B.

IT department


C.

Risk manager


D.

Third-party provider


Expert Solution
Questions # 100:

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

identification.


B.

treatment.


C.

communication.


D.

assessment


Expert Solution
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Viewing questions 51-100 out of questions