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Pass the Isaca Isaca Certification CRISC Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 8 out of 12 pages
Viewing questions 351-400 out of questions
Questions # 351:

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Data encryption


B.

Continuous log monitoring


C.

Right to audit


D.

Data obfuscation


Expert Solution
Questions # 352:

The GREATEST benefit of introducing continuous monitoring to an IT control environment is that it:

Options:

A.

Enables timely detection of emerging risk


B.

Enables the collection of benchmarking data


C.

Identifies stakeholders involved in the process


D.

Helps to obtain buy-in for future IT investments


Expert Solution
Questions # 353:

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.


B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.


C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.


D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.


Expert Solution
Questions # 354:

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

Options:

A.

Sharing company information on social media


B.

Sharing personal information on social media


C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates


D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours


Expert Solution
Questions # 355:

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

Options:

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.


B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.


C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.


D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact


Expert Solution
Questions # 356:

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Management approval


B.

Annual review


C.

Relevance


D.

Automation


Expert Solution
Questions # 357:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

Options:

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat


B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat


C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat


D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat


Expert Solution
Questions # 358:

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team ' s deliverables.


B.

Review the software development life cycle.


C.

Involve the development team in planning.


D.

Assign more developers to the project team.


Expert Solution
Questions # 359:

After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;

Options:

A.

prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.


B.

escalate to senior management.


C.

perform a cost-benefit analysis.


D.

review the impact to the IT environment.


Expert Solution
Questions # 360:

Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The risk owner


B.

The person who identified the risk


C.

The control owner


D.

The risk response owner


Expert Solution
Questions # 361:

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget


B.

Assessing changes in residual risk


C.

Assessing the inherent risk


D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)


Expert Solution
Questions # 362:

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis


B.

Current control attestation


C.

Risk profile update


D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)


Expert Solution
Questions # 363:

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude


B.

Incident probability


C.

Risk appetite


D.

Cost-benefit analysis


Expert Solution
Questions # 364:

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

Options:

A.

vulnerability scans.


B.

recurring vulnerabilities.


C.

vulnerabilities remediated,


D.

new vulnerabilities identified.


Expert Solution
Questions # 365:

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.


B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.


C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.


D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.


Expert Solution
Questions # 366:

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

Options:

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.


B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.


C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.


D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs


Expert Solution
Questions # 367:

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance


B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts


C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites


D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts


Expert Solution
Questions # 368:

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity


B.

Risk policy


C.

Risk appetite


D.

Risk culture


Expert Solution
Questions # 369:

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

Options:

A.

Implement a replacement control.


B.

Adjust residual risk rating.


C.

Escalate to senior management.


D.

Review compensating controls.


Expert Solution
Questions # 370:

During the internal review of an accounts payable process, a risk practitioner determines that the transaction approval limits configured in the system are not being enforced. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify the extent of the approval limit violations.


B.

Notify senior management of the system deficiency.


C.

Update the risk register with higher risk likelihood of violation.


D.

Remind users of the importance of adhering to approval limits.


Expert Solution
Questions # 371:

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.


B.

Implement layered security.


C.

Outsource to a local processor.


D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.


Expert Solution
Questions # 372:

An organization ' s IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.


B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.


C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.


D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.


Expert Solution
Questions # 373:

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

Options:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.


B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.


C.

organization to industry best practices.


D.

organization to peers.


Expert Solution
Questions # 374:

An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.


B.

Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.


C.

Review software license to determine the vendor ' s responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.


D.

Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.


Expert Solution
Questions # 375:

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data


B.

Links to source data


C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions


D.

Check totals on data records and data fields


Expert Solution
Questions # 376:

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact


B.

frequency and magnitude of loss


C.

control deficiencies


D.

threats and vulnerabilities


Expert Solution
Questions # 377:

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership


B.

Senior management participation


C.

Business unit support


D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy


Expert Solution
Questions # 378:

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met


B.

Identifying project cost overruns


C.

Leveraging an independent review team


D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix


Expert Solution
Questions # 379:

Which of the following aspects of risk can be transferred to a third party?

Options:

A.

Reputation impact


B.

Ownership


C.

Financial impact


D.

Accountability


Expert Solution
Questions # 380:

Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) to protect personal information on corporate mobile endpoints?

Options:

A.

Percentage of endpoints that are not encrypted


B.

Number of endpoints not compliant with patching policy


C.

Ratio of undiscoverable endpoints to encrypted endpoints


D.

Percentage of endpoints with outdated antivirus signatures


Expert Solution
Questions # 381:

The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Number of legacy servers out of support


B.

Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame


C.

Number of patches deployed outside of business hours


D.

Percentage of patched systems tested


Expert Solution
Questions # 382:

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning


B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting


C.

Configuration management


D.

Access controls and active logging


Expert Solution
Questions # 383:

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)


B.

Quantum computing


C.

Virtual reality (VR)


D.

Machine learning


Expert Solution
Questions # 384:

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:

A.

The criticality of the asset


B.

The monetary value of the asset


C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset


D.

The size of the asset ' s user base


Expert Solution
Questions # 385:

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?

Options:

A.

Potential audit findings


B.

Insufficient risk governance


C.

Potential business impact


D.

Inaccurate documentation


Expert Solution
Questions # 386:

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

Options:

A.

IT system owner


B.

Chief financial officer


C.

Chief risk officer


D.

Business process owner


Expert Solution
Questions # 387:

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

Options:

A.

Database manager


B.

Public relations manager


C.

Data privacy manager


D.

Business manager


Expert Solution
Questions # 388:

What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?

Options:

A.

Mitigation and control value


B.

Volume and scope of data generated daily


C.

Business criticality and sensitivity


D.

Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)


Expert Solution
Questions # 389:

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

Options:

A.

Payroll system risk factors


B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans


C.

Payroll process owner


D.

Payroll administrative controls


Expert Solution
Questions # 390:

During the initial risk identification process for a business application, it is MOST important to include which of the following stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Business process owners


B.

Business process consumers


C.

Application architecture team


D.

Internal audit


Expert Solution
Questions # 391:

Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:

Options:

A.

with strategic initiatives.


B.

to meet risk appetite.


C.

within resource availability.


D.

below risk appetite.


Expert Solution
Questions # 392:

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.


B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization ' s risk profile.


C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management


D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.


Expert Solution
Questions # 393:

It was discovered that a service provider ' s administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

Options:

A.

Data encryption


B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)


C.

Two-factor authentication


D.

Contractual requirements


Expert Solution
Questions # 394:

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a well-defined risk event?

Options:

A.

Forensic investigations include chain-of-custody requirements


B.

Impact analyses include annual loss expectancy (ALE)


C.

Incident response plans include recovery time objectives (RTOs)


D.

Critical systems include key performance indicators (KPIs)


Expert Solution
Questions # 395:

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

Options:

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)


B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)


C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays


D.

Maintaining a risk register


Expert Solution
Questions # 396:

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services


B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management


C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business


D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing


Expert Solution
Questions # 397:

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

Options:

A.

Compliance objectives


B.

Risk appetite of the organization


C.

Organizational objectives


D.

Inherent and residual risk


Expert Solution
Questions # 398:

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites


B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios


C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems


D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols


Expert Solution
Questions # 399:

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.


B.

conduct a risk analysis.


C.

update the risk register


D.

reallocate risk response resources.


Expert Solution
Questions # 400:

An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization ' s change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

Options:

A.

rolled back changes below management ' s thresholds.


B.

change-related exceptions per month.


C.

the average implementation time for changes.


D.

number of user stories approved for implementation.


Expert Solution
Viewing page 8 out of 12 pages
Viewing questions 351-400 out of questions