Pass the CompTIA CompTIA CASP CAS-005 Questions and answers with CertsForce

The correct snippet is Option A, which shows an Ansible YAML playbook designed to deploy and maintain security software on Linux servers. Ansible is a configuration management tool widely used in enterprise environments, and the ansible.builtin.apt module specifically manages package installation on Debian/Ubuntu-based Linux distributions. This ensures consistent security software deployment across multiple servers.

Option B is XML-based and does not represent a valid configuration management script. Option C incorrectly uses JSON format and references Microsoft’s store (com.microsoft.store.latest), which is irrelevant for Linux. Option D also uses JSON syntax with “AppX,” which applies to Windows applications, not Linux.

CAS-005 emphasizes infrastructure as code (IaC) and automation as best practices for secure system configuration. YAML-based playbooks in Ansible provide repeatability, auditability, and scalability, making Option A the most secure and appropriate solution.

Implementing the given commands in the Dockerfile ensures that the container runs with non-root user privileges. Running applications as a non-root user reduces the risk of privilege escalation attacks because even if anattacker compromises the application, they would have limited privileges and would not be able to perform actions that require root access.

A. Implementing the following commands in the Dockerfile: This directly addresses the privilege escalation attack surface by ensuring the application does not run with elevated privileges.

B. Installing an EDR on the container's host: While useful for detecting threats, this does not reduce the privilege escalation attack surface within the containerized application.

C.Designing a multi-container solution: While beneficial for modularity and remediation, it does not specifically address privilege escalation.

D. Running the container in an isolated network: This improves network security but does not directly reduce the privilege escalation attack surface.

The “cipher unavailable” message indicates that the client and server could not agree on a common cipher suite. After the OpenSSL update, the server likely dropped support for older, insecure ciphers (such as RC4 or 3DES) that legacy clients still use. The safest remediation is to update or configure the client applications to support modern, secure ciphers such as AES in Galois/Counter Mode (AES-GCM) or an equivalent strong cipher suite that is supported by the updated OpenSSL server.

Option A (SSL 3.0) is unsafe because SSL 3.0 is deprecated and vulnerable to multiple attacks (e.g., POODLE).

Option C (ECB mode) is insecure due to pattern leakage and should never be enforced.

Option D (ECC signatures) relates to key exchange and signatures, not to the “cipher unavailable” issue directly.

This approach aligns with SecurityX CAS-005 cryptographic interoperability guidance—modernize clients rather than reintroduce insecure protocols.

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.1 uses three metric groups to calculate overall scores:Base,Temporal, andEnvironmental.

Base (E):Mandatory metrics assessing exploitability (e.g., attack vector) and impact (confidentiality, integrity, availability).

Temporal (A):Optional metrics reflecting the current state of the vulnerability (e.g., exploit availability, remediation level).

Environmental (F):Optional metrics tailoring the score to the organization’s context (e.g., security requirements).

B, C, D (Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality):These are subcomponents of the Base Impact metrics, not standalone groups.

G (Impact):A categorywithin Base, not a group.

H (Attack vector):A single Base metric, not a group.

Always-on VPN ensures that devices connect automatically to the corporate network whenever they are online, allowing seamless access to internal resources and enabling authentication against on-premises directory services (such as Active Directory). This supports centralized identity management, GPO enforcement, and compliance requirements.

Options B, C, and D involve local or peripheral resources, which are unaffected by VPN state.

The best step is to query user behavior analytics (UBA) data. SIEM alerts provide potential security events, but without additional context, they may lead to false positives. UBA solutions detect anomalies by comparing user activity against baselines of normal behavior, highlighting unusual login patterns, lateral movement, or privilege escalation.

Option A (password manager logs) focuses only on credential use and lacks behavioral insight. Option B (dark web monitoring) helps identify compromised accounts but does not investigate the internal incident. Option C (audit logs for privileged actions) is useful but narrow in scope—it only covers administrator accounts.

By correlating SIEM data with UBA, the engineer can validate whether the flagged activity indicates real malicious behavior or benign anomalies. CAS-005 emphasizes advanced analytics integration (UEBA/UBA) to strengthen investigation and reduce false positives, making Option D the most effective choice.

To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy ofthe scan results.

Whencreating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here’s why:

Exposure to Attack: External-facinginfrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.

Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.

Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.