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The activities that should be separated are initiating and closing error logs. This is a segregation-of-duties issue. The same person who opens an error record should not also have sole authority to close it, because that creates an opportunity to suppress incidents, conceal inadequate investigation, or bypass proper resolution and review. ISACA guidance regularly stresses the importance of segregation of duties as a foundational control principle.

Option A is correct because separating initiation from closure helps ensure independent review, proper follow-up, and accountability in the incident process. This aligns with classic CISA logic: one role records or raises the issue, while another role validates resolution and closure.

Option B is less compelling because collecting and analyzing logs are closely related operational security activities and are often performed within the same monitoring function.

Option C is also less appropriate to separate in this context because identifying root causes and recommending workarounds are naturally linked problem-management activities. ISACA guidance on root cause analysis connects these activities to incident and problem handling.

Option D is not the best answer because recording and classifying incidents are typically performed together at intake or triage. Separating them would usually add process friction without the same control benefit as separating initiation from closure.

Therefore, A is the best answer because it best reflects appropriate segregation of duties in incident handling.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Journal, IS Audit Basics: Trust but Verify — highlights the importance of segregation of duties.

ISACA Journal, Trends, Challenges and Strategies for Effective Audit in a Rapidly Changing Landscape — reinforces segregation of duties as a continuing control requirement.

ISACA Journal, Resilient GRC: Tackling Contemporary Challenges With a Robust Delivery Model — discusses bias and segregation-of-duties concerns.

ISACA, Root Cause Analysis / ISACA Glossary — supports the linkage between root cause analysis and incident/problem processes.

The correct answer is A. Assess the impact of any risks the decision may pose to the organization.

During follow-up, the auditor’s responsibility is to determine whether management’s actions have sufficiently addressed the identified risk. If management defers an agreed corrective action, the auditor should assess whether the remaining risk is acceptable or whether the deferral exposes the organization to unacceptable risk.

ISACA guidance on audit follow-up states that IS audit and assurance professionals should monitor relevant information to conclude whether management has planned or taken appropriate and timely action to address reported audit findings and recommendations. It also identifies deferring follow-up activities and assuming the risk of not taking corrective action as part of the follow-up process.

Option B is not the best answer because simply amending the final report does not evaluate the risk impact. Option C is not the best answer because management, not the auditor, owns corrective action. The auditor can recommend and follow up but should not force management commitment. Option D may be appropriate later if the risk is significant or exceeds risk appetite, but the auditor should first assess the impact.

This question maps to Information Systems Auditing Process, because ISACA’s CISA Exam Content Outline includes conducting post-audit follow-up to evaluate whether identified risk has been sufficiently addressed.

 Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, consistent, and reliable throughout its lifecycle. The best data integrity check is tracing data back to the point of origin, which is the source where the data was originally created or captured. This check can verify that data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission, processing, or storage. It can also identify any errors or discrepancies in data entry or conversion. Counting the transactions processed per day is a performance measure that does not directly assess data integrity. Performing a sequence check is a validity check that ensures that data follows a predefined order or pattern. It can detect missing or out-of-order data elements, but it cannot verify their accuracy or completeness. Preparing and running test data is a testing technique that simulates real data to evaluate how a system handles different scenarios. It can help identify errors or bugs in the system logic or functionality, but it cannot ensure data integrity in production environments. References: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

The primary benefit of using one-time passwords is that an intercepted password cannot be reused, as it is valid only for a single login session or transaction. One-time passwords enhance the security of authentication by preventing replay attacks or password guessing. The other options are not the primary benefits of using one-time passwords. Security for applications can be automated with or without one-time passwords. Users may still have to memorize complex passwords or use a device or software to generate one-time passwords. Users can still be locked out of an account if they enter an incorrect or expired one-time password. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.1

 The best option to support the organization’s objectives of protecting data confidentiality while transporting data is encryption. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access the original data. Encryption protects the confidentiality of data in transit by preventing unauthorized interception,modification, or disclosure of the data. Encryption can also help comply with data privacy and security regulations, such as the GDPR and HIPAA.

The other options are not as effective as encryption in protecting data confidentiality while transporting data. Cryptographic hashes are mathematical functions that generate a fixed-length output from an input, but they do not encrypt the data. Hashes are used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but they do not prevent unauthorized access to the data. Virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain, but they do not encrypt the data. VLANs can improve network performance and security by isolating traffic, but they do not protect the data from being intercepted or modified by external attackers. Dedicated lines are physical connections that provide exclusive access to a network or service, but they do not encrypt the data. Dedicated lines can offer higher bandwidth and reliability, but they do not guarantee the confidentiality of the data from being compromised by physical tampering or eavesdropping.

The best answer is C. Operate in fail-secure mode.

If the goal is to prevent unauthorized entry during a power outage, the doors should remain locked when power fails. That is exactly what fail-secure operation is intended to do. Alarming and monitoring may detect an issue, but they do not themselves prevent entry. Physical key backup may help authorized access, but it does not address the primary requirement of staying secure during loss of power.

So the strongest answer is fail-secure, because it directly preserves physical access control during an outage.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA physical security and access-control terminology resources support layered protection of facilities.

For online payment security, bothconfidentiality(protection of data) andnonrepudiation(ensuring the sender cannot deny a transaction) are essential.

Option A (Incorrect):DES is outdatedandinsecurefor modern encryption needs. It has been replaced by stronger algorithms.

Option B (Incorrect):AES provides strong encryption(confidentiality) but does not handlenonrepudiationon its own.

Option C (Correct):PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)is the best solution because it providesencryption for confidentialityanddigital signatures for nonrepudiation, ensuring bothsecuretransactions andauthenticationof parties involved.

Option D (Incorrect):AVPN secures network traffic, but it does not address nonrepudiation, which is critical in online payments.

The data retention policy for a global organization with regional offices in multiple countries should align with local laws and regulations, as they may vary significantly from one country to another and may impose different requirements and penalties for non-compliance. The policy should also consider the corporate policies and practices, the global best practices, and the business goals and objectives, but these are secondary to the legal compliance. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of InformationAssets, Section 5.3: Data Classification and Protection

The primary basis on which audit objectives are established is the consideration of risks12. This involves identifying and assessing the risks that could prevent the organization from achieving its objectives12. The audit objectives are then designed to address these risks and provide assurance that the organization’s controls are effective in managing them12. While audit risk, assessment of prior audits, and business strategy are important factors in the audit process, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of considering risks12.

 A web proxy server for corporate connections to external resources reduces organizational risk by anonymizing users through changed IP addresses. A web proxy server is an intermediarybetween the web and client devices, that can provide proxy services to a client or a group of clients1. One of the main benefits of using a web proxy server is that it allows users to change their IP address andlocation, circumventing geoblocking and hiding their identity from the target website2.

Anonymizing internal IP addresses is important for online security, as it helps protect the organization from several threats. If an attacker controls a server that employees connect to, the outgoing IP address of the organization’s router is logged on the server. This IP address can be used by the attacker to launch a denial-of-service (DoS) attack or to create more targeted attacks such as phishing2. With a web proxy server, the IP shown in web logs is the web proxy’s, which means an attacker would not have access to theorganization’s router outgoing IP address2.

Anonymizing outgoing IP addresses is also important when carrying out sensitive actions online, such as law enforcement investigations or competitive intelligence. A web proxy server can help users avoid exposing their internal IP address that leads back to their organization, and instead use a third-party web proxy that provides more anonymity2.

The other options are not directly related to reducing organizational risk by using a web proxy server. Providing multi-factor authentication for additional security (option B) is a benefit of some web proxy servers, but it is not the main purpose of using a web proxy server3. Providing faster response than direct access(option C) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that cache content forbetter data transfer speeds and less bandwidth usage, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk1. Load balancing traffic to optimize data pathways (option D) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that distribute traffic across multiple servers, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk4.

The correct answer is A. It acts as a measuring tool and progress indicator.

The primary benefit of periodic maturity model assessments is that they allow the organization to measure its current level of capability or maturity and compare progress over time. This helps management understand whether processes are improving, staying the same, or declining.

ISACA explains that COBIT performance management evaluates how well governance and management systems work and how they can be improved to achieve target levels of process and practice capability and maturity. ISACA also describes maturity models as methods based on measuring progress through predefined levels of increasing maturity.

Option B is not the best answer because a maturity assessment may identify weaknesses, but it does not automatically fix them. Option C is related, because maturity assessment results may support an improvement plan, but execution of the plan is not the primary benefit of the assessment itself. Option D is too broad; maturity assessments may support consistency and improvement, but their primary value is measurement and progress tracking.

This question maps mainly to Governance and Management of IT, because maturity assessment supports governance, performance monitoring, process improvement, and management oversight.

The primary objective of a disaster recovery plan is recovery of interrupted IT-related activities in a way that minimizes the impact of the disruption. Official ISACA definitions describe disaster recovery as activities and programs designed to return the enterprise to an acceptable condition and restore critical business functions through a DRP. ISACA’s glossary defines a disaster recovery plan (DRP) as a set of human, physical, technical, and procedural resources to recover an interrupted activity within a defined time and cost.

Among the answer choices, A. Minimizing loss of information is the best match. ISACA guidance states that a DRP contains procedures for restoring systems and data, minimizing loss of information and downtime, and ensuring business continuity. This makes option A the strongest answer because it captures a direct purpose of the DRP itself.

Option B (“Assessing the risk of key applications”) is an important planning activity, but it is not the primary objective of the DRP. Risk assessment is part of developing continuity capability, not the ultimate aim of the plan. ISACA continuity guidance treats assessing risks and impacts as a step in the DRP process, not the main end goal.

Option C (“Identifying key business processes”) is also an important prerequisite, typically associated more with business impact analysis and business continuity planning. It helps define what must be protected and restored, but it is not itself the primary objective of the DRP. ISACA distinguishes business continuity activities from disaster recovery, with DR focusing more specifically on restoring IT systems, infrastructure, and data after disruption.

Option D (“Documenting all IT assets”) may support recovery preparedness, but this is clearly not the primary objective of a DRP. Asset documentation is administrative and supportive; the goal of the plan is restoration and recovery with minimal disruption and data loss.

Therefore, A is the correct answer because official ISACA material directly states that the DRP is intended to restore systems and data while minimizing loss of information and downtime.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Glossary, Disaster Recovery (DR) and Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) definitions.

ISACA Now Blog, Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Preparedness for Cloud-Based Start-Ups — states that a DRP includes restoring systems and data, minimizing loss of information and downtime, and ensuring business continuity.

ISACA Journal, Working Toward a Managed, Mature Business Continuity Plan — distinguishes DR as focusing on rebuilding/recovering site, infrastructure, and data.

ISACA Journal, Information System Contingency Planning Guidance — supports that planning activities such as risk awareness are part of planning, not the primary objective itself.

This is the most effective way for the organization to improve its data classification processes and procedures, because data owners are the ones who are responsible for assigning the appropriate level of classification to the data they create, collect, or manage. Data owners should be aware of the data classification policy, the criteria for each level of classification, and the implications of misclassification. IT security staff can provide tailored training for data owners based on their roles, functions, and types of data they handle.

The other options are not as effective as having IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners:

Use automatic document classification based on content. This is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or accurate for a small organization. Automatic document classification is a process that uses artificial intelligence or machine learning to analyze the content of a document and assign a class label based on predefined rules or models. However, this process may require a lot of resources, expertise, and maintenance, and it may not capture all the nuances and context of the data. The IS auditor should also verify the reliability and validity of the automatic document classification system.

Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal. This is a good practice, but it is not enough to improve the data classification situation. Publishing the data classification policy on the corporate web portal can increase the visibility and accessibility of the policy, but it does not ensure that data owners will read, understand, and follow it. The IS auditor should also monitor and enforce the compliance with the policy.

Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies. This is a useful measure, but it is not the most effective one. Conducting awareness presentations and seminars can raise the general awareness and knowledge of information classification policies among all employees, but it may not address the specific needs and challenges of data owners. The IS auditor should also provide more in-depth and practical training for data owners.

Access to production source and object programs is the best way to ensure that effective change management is in place in an IS environment, as it prevents unauthorized or accidental changes to the production code that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the system. Access to production source and object programs should be restricted to authorized personnel only, and any changes should follow a formal change management process that includes documentation, approval, testing, and review.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 254

Change Management Best Practices for the Engineering and …

Change Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

The correct answer is B. Multiple overwriting.

When storage media will be reused, the goal is to remove sensitive data while keeping the media physically usable. Multiple overwriting writes new patterns of data over existing data so the previous sensitive information is no longer practically recoverable. ISACA describes overwriting as placing an additional layer of information over existing material, with the purpose of protecting the information while not damaging the hard drive itself.

Option A is not correct because cross-cut shredding physically destroys the media. It may be appropriate when media will be disposed of, but not when the storage device must be reused. Option C is not correct because repartitioning changes the disk structure but does not securely erase the underlying data. Option D is not correct because reformatting may remove file system references but often does not securely eliminate recoverable data.

A useful CISA exam point is this:

For reuse, choose logical sanitization such as overwriting.

For disposal, choose physical destruction, degaussing, or shredding depending on the media type and sensitivity.

ISACA notes that common digital data destruction methods include overwriting, degaussing, and physical destruction. Since degaussing and physical destruction generally make media unsuitable for normal reuse, overwriting is the best answer in this question.

 Validation controls are used to check the input data from the user before processing it on the server. If the validation controls are moved from the server side to the browser, it means that the user can modify or bypass them using tools such as browser developer tools, JavaScript console, or proxy tools. This would increase the risk of a successful attack by structured query language (SQL) injection, which is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s software layer that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the underlying database. SQL injection can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access to the system.

Buffer overflow, denial of service (DoS), and phishing are not directly related to the validation controls in a web application. Buffer overflow is a type of attack that exploits a memory management flaw in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size and overwrite adjacent memory locations. DoS is a type of attack that prevents legitimate users from accessing a service or resource by overwhelming it with requests or traffic. Phishing is a type of attack that uses fraudulent emails or websites to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware.

An IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives is a set of principles, guidelines, and practices that help an organization to ensure that its IT investments support its strategic goals, deliver value, manage risks, and optimize resources. One of the benefits of implementing such a framework is that it enables an effective IT portfolio management, which is the process of selecting, prioritizing, monitoring, and evaluating the IT projects and services that comprise the IT portfolio. An IT portfolio is a collection of IT assets, such as applications, infrastructure, data, and capabilities, that are aligned with the business needs and objectives. An IT portfolio management helps an organization to achieve the following outcomes:

Align the IT portfolio with the business strategy and vision

Balance the IT portfolio among different types of investments, such as innovation, growth, maintenance, and compliance

Optimize the IT portfolio performance, value, and risk

Enhance the IT portfolio decision-making and governance

Improve the IT portfolio communication and transparency

Therefore, an inadequate IT portfolio management is a major concern that can be addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. An inadequate IT portfolio management can result in the following issues:

Misalignment of the IT portfolio with the business needs and expectations

Imbalance of the IT portfolio among competing demands and priorities

Suboptimal use of the IT resources and capabilities

Lack of visibility and accountability of the IT portfolio outcomes and impacts

Poor communication and collaboration among the IT portfolio stakeholders

The other possible options are:

Inaccurate business impact analysis (BIA): A BIA is a process of identifying and assessing the potential effects of a disruption or disaster on the critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps an organization to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for its business continuity plan. A BIA is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may use some inputs from the IT portfolio management. Therefore, an inaccurate BIA is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives.

Inadequate IT change management practices: IT change management is a process of controlling and managing the changes to the IT environment, such as hardware, software, configuration, or documentation. IT change management helps an organization to minimize the risks and disruptions caused by the changes, ensure the quality and consistency of the changes, and align the changes with the business requirements. IT change management is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may support some aspects of the IT portfolio management. Therefore, inadequate IT change management practices are not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives.

Lack of a benchmark analysis: A benchmark analysis is a process of comparing an organization’s performance, processes, or practices with those of other organizations or industry standards. A benchmark analysis helps an organization to identify its strengths and weaknesses, set realistic goals and targets, and implement best practices for improvement. A benchmark analysis is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may provide some insights for the IT portfolio management. Therefore, lack of a benchmark analysis is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. References: 1: What is Portfolio Management? | Smartsheet 2: What Is Portfolio Management? - Definition from Techopedia 3: What Is Project Portfolio Management (PPM)? |ProjectManager.com 4: What Is Business Impact Analysis? | Smartsheet 5: What Is Change Management? - Definition from Techopedia 6: Benchmarking - Wikipedia

 A black box penetration test is a type of security assessment that simulates an attack on a system or network without any prior knowledge of its configuration or architecture. The main objective of this test is to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses that can be exploited by external or internal threat actors. To plan a black box penetration test, it is most important to ensure that the environment and penetration test scope have been determined. This means that the tester and the client organization have agreed on the boundaries, objectives, methods, and deliverables of the test, as well as the legal and ethical aspects of the engagement. Without a clear definition of the environment and scope, the test may not be effective, efficient, or compliant with relevant standards and regulations. Additionally, the tester may cause unintended damage or disruption to the client’s systems or networks, or violate their privacy or security policies.

 The best recommendation to mitigate the risk of eavesdropping associated with an API integration implementation is to implement Transport Layer Security (TLS). TLS is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network by encrypting the data in transit and authenticating the parties involved. TLS can prevent unauthorized parties from intercepting, modifying or tampering with the data exchanged between the API endpoints. Encrypting the XML file, implementing SOAP, and masking the API endpoints are not sufficient to mitigate the risk of eavesdropping, as they do not provide end-to-end encryption or authentication for the API communication. References: IS Auditand Assurance Tools and Techniques, CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA

Threat modeling is an approach that enables IS auditors to identify, analyze, and mitigate potential security vulnerabilities within an application by understanding the threats, attacks, vulnerabilities, and countermeasures. This proactive technique helps in designing secure applications.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Page 276-277 (Threat Modeling)

Toverify the effectivenessof a third-party provider’ssecurity controls, anindependent external audit reportis thestrongestevidence.

Option A (Incorrect):Security configuration documentsare helpful butdo not confirm effectivenesswithout validation.

Option B (Incorrect):Policies and procedures outlineintent, but anaudit confirms actual implementation.

Option C (Correct):External audit reports (e.g., SOC 2, ISO 27001)provideindependent assurancethat security controls are effective.

Option D (Incorrect):Management interviews providequalitativeinsights but arenot objective evidenceof control effectiveness.

The most important consideration for patching mission critical business application servers against known vulnerabilities is A. Patches are implemented in a test environment prior to rollout into production. This is because patching mission critical business application servers involves a high level of risk and complexity, and requires careful planning and testing before applying the patches to the live environment. Patches may introduce new bugs, errors, or conflicts that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the application servers, and cause system downtime, data loss, or business disruption1. Therefore, it is essential to implement patches in atest environment first, where the patches can be verified and validated for their effectiveness and compatibility, and any issues or defects can be identified and resolved before they impact the production environment2.

 The strategy that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation is delivering only the core functionality on the initial target date. This strategy can help avoid compromising the quality of the system by focusing on the essential features that meet the user needs and expectations. Delivering only the core functionality can also help reduce the scope creep, complexity, and testing efforts of the system development project.

Implementing overtime pay and bonuses for all development staff, utilizing new system development tools to improve productivity, and recruiting IS staff to expedite system development are not strategies that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation. These strategies may help speed up the system development process, but they may also introduce new risks or challenges such as burnout, learning curve, integration issues, or communication gaps. These risks or challenges may adversely affect the quality of the system.

 Clustering is a technique that allows multiple servers to work together as a single system, providing high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. Clustering can limit the potential impact of server failures in a distributed environment, as it can automatically switch the workload to another server in the cluster if one server fails, without interrupting the service. Redundant pathways, failoverpower, and parallel testing are also useful for improving the reliability and availability of servers, but they do not directly address the issue of server failures. 

Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, or services without explicit organizational approval. This often occurs when employees or departments adopt tools that bypass official IT governance structures.

Using a Cloud-Based Order Management Tool Without Approval (Option A)is a clear example of shadow IT because the employee is circumventing established IT policies to implement a solution independently.

Accessing Personal Banking Information on a Company-Provided Laptop (Option B)is a potential misuse of resources but does not qualify as shadow IT since it does not involve unauthorized technology.

Using Personal Email for Client Communication (Option C)may violate communication policies but is not related to the adoption of unapproved IT systems.

Accessing Social Media on a Company-Provided Tablet (Option D)is improper use of a company asset but does not involve unauthorized IT tools.

Shadow IT introduces risks such as data breaches, lack of compliance, and inefficiencies due to lack of integration with official systems. Organizations should have clear policies and monitoring mechanisms to address such risks.

 A database administrator (DBA) should be prevented from having end user responsibilities to avoid a conflict of interest and a violation of the principle of segregation of duties. End user responsibilities may include initiating transactions, authorizing transactions, recording transactions or reconciling transactions. A DBA who has end user responsibilities may compromise the integrity, confidentiality and availability of the data and the database systems. Accessing sensitive information, having access to production files and using an emergency user ID are not end user responsibilities, but rather potential risks or controls associated with the DBA role. References:

 Database Administrator (DBA) Definition

 Segregation of Duties | ISACA

[End User Definition]

This should result in a finding because it violates the best practice of setting rules for groups rather than users. According to one of the web search results1, using group permissions instead of individual permissions can simplify the management and maintenance of ACLs, reduce the risk of human errors, and ensure consistency and compliance. Individual permissions can create conflicts, confusion, and security gaps in the ACLs. Therefore, the IS auditor should report this as a finding and recommend using group permissions instead.

A data warehouse is a centralized repository of data that is collected from various sources and organized for analysis and reporting purposes. A data warehouse can help an organization gain insights into its business performance, trends, and opportunities. However, building a data warehouse requires careful planning, design, and implementation to ensure that it meets the needs of the organization.

One of the best practices that would provide management with the most reasonable assurance that a new data warehouse will meet the needs of the organization is A. Integrating data requirements into the system development life cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a framework that defines the phases and activities involved in developing a software system, such as planning, analysis, design, testing, deployment, and maintenance1. By integrating data requirements into the SDLC, an organization can ensure that the data warehouse is aligned with the business objectives and expectations, and that it delivers value to the end users.

Some of the benefits of integrating data requirements into the SDLC are:

It helps to identify and prioritize the key business questions and metrics that the data warehouse should support2.

It helps to define and validate the data sources, models, structures, and quality standards that the data warehouse should follow3.

It helps to design and implement the data integration, transformation, and loading processes that the data warehouse should use4.

It helps to test and verify the functionality, performance, and accuracy of the data warehouse before deploying it to production.

It helps to monitor and maintain the data warehouse after deployment and incorporate feedback and changes as needed.

The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new automated control is to review the written procedures that define the processes and controls. This will help the IS auditor to understand the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and expected outcomes of the control. The written procedures will also provide a basis for testing the control and verifying its compliance with the audit finding recommendations. References:

ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

 The technology that has the smallest maximum range for data transmission between devices is near-field communication (NFC). NFC is a short-range wireless technology that enables two devices to communicate when they are in close proximity, usually within a few centimeters. NFC is commonly used for contactless payments, smart cards, and device pairing. According to the Bluetooth® Technology Website1, the effective range of NFC is less than a meter, while the other technologies have much longer ranges. Wi-Fi can reach up to 100 meters indoors and300 meters outdoors2. Bluetooth can reach up to 800 feet with Bluetooth5.0 specification3. Long-term evolution (LTE) canreach up to several kilometers depending on the cell tower and the device4.

 The best metric to assure compliance with the policy of providing security awareness training to all new employees is the percentage of new hires that have completed the training, as this directly measures the extent to which the policy is implemented and enforced. The number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies, the number of reported incidents by new hires, and the percentage of new hires who report incidents are not directly related to the policy, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature and frequency of threats, the effectiveness of security controls, and the reporting culture of the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.7

The area that is most likely to be overlooked when implementing a new data classification process is end-user computing (EUC) systems. EUC systems are applications or tools that are developed or customized by end users, often without formal IT involvement or approval. EUC systems may contain sensitive or confidential data that need to be classified and protected according to the organization’s policies and standards. However, EUC systems may not be subject to the same controls, oversight, or documentation as formal IT systems, and may not be included in the scope of the data classification process. Therefore, EUC systems pose a significant risk of data leakage, unauthorized access, or noncompliance. The other areas (B, C and D) are less likely to be overlooked, as they are more visible and manageable by the IT department or the data owners. References: IS Audit and Assurance Guideline 2202: Evidence Collection Techniques, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Data Classification

Periodic recertification of users ensures that only authorized individuals retain access to cloud services and helps identify and revoke access for users who no longer require it. This is a critical control for maintaining security and compliance in a cloud environment.

Classifying Cloud Services (Option A):This is foundational but does not verify ongoing user access.

Centrally Managing Users (Option B):While useful for consistency, it does not assess whether access rights are still valid.

Ensuring Cloud Process Resilience (Option C):This focuses on operational continuity rather than access control.

Periodic recertification aligns with governance practices to ensure access rights remain appropriate over time.

Full disk encryption (FDE) is a means of protecting information by encrypting all of thedata on a disk, including temporary files, programs, and system files1. FDE is best suited for addressing the risk scenario of physical theft of media on which information is stored, as it prevents unauthorized access to the data even if the device is lost or stolen2. FDE does not prevent data leakage as a result of employees leaving to work for competitors, as they may still have access to the data while using the device or copy the data to another device before leaving. FDE does not prevent noncompliance fines related to storage of regulated information, as it does not ensure that the data is stored in accordance with the applicable laws and regulations. FDE does not prevent unauthorized logical access to information through an application interface, as it does not control the access rights and permissions of users and applications. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 2402 Planning, “The IS audit and assurance professional should identify and assess risk relevant to the area under review.” 3 Oneof the risk factors to consider is “the sensitivity of information processed, stored or transmitted by the system” 3. FDE is one of the possible controls to mitigate the risk of unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information due to physical theft of media.

The best way to detect unauthorized copies of licensed software on systems is to conduct periodic software scanning. Software scanning is a process of using specialized tools or programs to scan the systems and identify the software installed, the license status, the usage, and the compliance with the software policies and agreements. Software scanning can help to detect any unauthorized, unlicensed, or illegal copies of software on the systems, as well as any discrepancies or violations of the software licenses. Software scanning can also help to optimize the software inventory, reduce the software costs, and improve the security and performance of the systems12.

Some examples of software scanning tools are:

Microsoft Software Inventory Analyzer (MSIA): A free tool that scans Windows-based computers and servers and generates reports on the Microsoft products installed, such as operating systems, applications, and updates3.

Belarc Advisor: A free tool that scans Windows-based computers and generates reports onthe hardware and software installed, including license keys, versions, usage, and security status4.

Lansweeper: A paid tool that scans Windows, Linux, Mac, and other network devices and generates reports on the hardware and software inventory, license compliance, configuration, and vulnerabilities5.

To conduct periodic software scanning, you need to:

Choose a suitable software scanning tool that meets your needs and budget.

Define the scope and frequency of the software scanning, such as which systems to scan, how often to scan, and what information to collect.

Configure and run the software scanning tool according to the instructions and settings.

Review and analyze the software scanning reports and identify any unauthorized copies of licensed software on the systems.

Take appropriate actions to remove or regularize the unauthorized copies of licensed software on the systems.

Document and report the results and findings of the software scanning.

 Coding standards provide field naming conventions, which are rules for naming variables, constants, functions, classes, and other elements in a program. Coding standards help to ensure consistency, readability, maintainability, and portability of code. Program documentation, access control tables, and data flow diagrams are not part of coding standards. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1

The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a network printer disposal process is that evidence is not available to verify printer hard drives have been sanitized prior to disposal. This can expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties and cause data breaches. Disposal policies and procedures not being consistently implemented or business units being allowed to dispose printers directly to vendors are compliance issues, but not as critical as data protection. Inoperable printers being stored in an unsecured area is a physical security issue, but not as severe as data leakage. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 387

The executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard is the effectiveness of the security program. A security metrics dashboard is a tool that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) related to the organization’s information security objectives and activities. A security metrics dashboard can help executive management monitor and evaluate the performance and value delivery of the security program, identify strengths and weaknesses, assess compliance with policies and standards, and support decision making and improvement initiatives. Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks, total number of hours budgeted to security, and total number of false positives are not executive management concerns that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard. These are more operational or technical aspects of information security that could be measured and reported by other means, such as incident reports, budget reports, or log analysis. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 302

 Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates the behavior and reliability of a system under extreme conditions, such as high workload, limited resources, or concurrent users. Stress testing should ideally be carried out under a test environment with production workloads, as this would simulate the most realistic and demanding scenario for the system without affecting the actual production environment. A production environment with production workloads is not suitable for stress testing, as it could cause disruption or damage to the system and its users. A production environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could compromise the integrity and security of the production data. A test environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could underestimate the potential issues and risks that could occur in the production environment. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 471-4721

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database,Question ID: 261