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Pass the Cisco CCNP Security 350-701 Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 8 out of 15 pages
Viewing questions 106-120 out of questions
Questions # 106:

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It must include the current date.


B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.


C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.


D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.


E.

it must contain a SAN.


Expert Solution
Questions # 107:

A security engineer must add destinations into a destination list in Cisco Umbrella. What describes the application of these changes?

Options:

A.

The changes are applied immediately it the destination list is part or a policy.


B.

The destination list must be removed from the policy before changes are made to It.


C.

The changes are applied only after the configuration is saved in Cisco Umbrella.


D.

The user role of Block Page Bypass or higher is needed to perform these changes.


Expert Solution
Questions # 108:

Which interface mode does a Cisco Secure IPS device use to block suspicious traffic?

Options:

A.

Passive


B.

Inline


C.

Promiscuous


D.

Active


Expert Solution
Questions # 109:

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

Options:

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.


B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted


C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.


D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.


Expert Solution
Questions # 110:

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.


B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.


C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.


D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.


Expert Solution
Questions # 111:

Which method of attack is used by a hacker to send malicious code through a web application to an unsuspecting user to request that the victim's web browser executes the code?

Options:

A.

buffer overflow


B.

browser WGET


C.

SQL injection


D.

cross-site scripting


Expert Solution
Questions # 112:

In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

Options:

A.

IaaS


B.

UCaaS


C.

PaaS


D.

SaaS


Expert Solution
Questions # 113:

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

Options:

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.


B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.


C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.


D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.


Expert Solution
Questions # 114:

When choosing an algorithm to us, what should be considered about Diffie Hellman and RSA for key

establishment?

Options:

A.

RSA is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys


B.

RSA is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys


C.

DH is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys


D.

DH is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys


Expert Solution
Questions # 115:

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device


B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users


C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments


D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints


E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations


Expert Solution
Questions # 116:

What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Use Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco ISE Integration.


B.

Utilize 802.1X network security to ensure unauthorized access to resources.


C.

Use machine learning models to help identify anomalies and determine expected sending behavior.


D.

Ensure that antivirus and anti malware software is up to date


Expert Solution
Questions # 117:

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list


B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis


C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments


D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious


E.

determines if the email messages are malicious


Expert Solution
Questions # 118:

Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services

Engine? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RADIUS


B.

TACACS+


C.

DHCP


D.

sFlow


E.

SMTP


Expert Solution
Questions # 119:

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.


B.

An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.


C.

A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.


D.

An endpoint is profiled for the first time.


E.

A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona


Expert Solution
Questions # 120:

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint

Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection


B.

when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed


C.

when there is no firewall on the network


D.

when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities


Expert Solution
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Viewing questions 106-120 out of questions