Pass the American Society of Microbiology ASM-ABMM ABMM Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Questions # 11:

A centrifuge rotor containing capped tubes of sputum concentrate for AFB culture breaks during operation inside a Class II Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC). What is the most appropriate immediate action for the technologist?

Options:

A.

Immediately turn off the BSC, open the sash fully, and spray disinfectant widely.


B.

Keep the BSC running, notify the supervisor, evacuate the immediate area, and post warning signs. Allow aerosols to settle (e.g., 30 min) before initiating decontamination with a tuberculocidal disinfectant.


C.

Carefully remove any intact tubes, wipe them with 70% alcohol, and place them in a new rotor to continue processing.


D.

Open the centrifuge within the BSC, discard broken glass in a regular sharps container, and clean the spill with 10% bleach.


Expert Solution
Questions # 12:

A clinical microbiology laboratory is monitoring the emergence of antimicrobial resistance. The detection of a bacterial isolate with reduced susceptibility to multiple classes of antibiotics, often due to horizontal gene transfer of resistance determinants, is characteristic of:

Options:

A.

An intrinsically resistant organism.


B.

A pan-susceptible organism.


C.

A multidrug-resistant (MDR) organism.


D.

A naturally competent organism.


Expert Solution
Questions # 13:

A patient with a history of travel to a tropical region presents with cyclical fevers and chills.Peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of merozoites and schizonts within erythrocytes. The absence of crescent-shaped gametocytes makes Plasmodium falciparum less likely. The MOST probable species is:

Options:

A.

Plasmodium vivax


B.

Plasmodium ovale


C.

Plasmodium malariae


D.

Plasmodium knowlesi


Expert Solution
Questions # 14:

A Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a 2-year-old child with meningitis shows small, pleomorphic Gram-negative coccobacilli. Culture on chocolate agar yields growth, but there is no growth on standard 5% sheep blood agar unless streaked near a colony of Staphylococcus aureus. This phenomenon indicates a requirement for which growth factor(s)?

Options:

A.

Factor X (hemin) only


B.

Factor V (NAD) only


C.

Both Factor X and Factor V


D.

Cysteine and pyridoxal


Expert Solution
Questions # 15:

The direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test is commonly used for the rapid detection of which respiratory pathogen directly from nasopharyngeal specimens?

Options:

A.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae


B.

Legionella pneumophila (serogroup 1 in sputum)


C.

Influenza virus


D.

Bordetella pertussis


Expert Solution
Questions # 16:

A laboratory worker sustains a needlestick injury while handling a blood sample known to be positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg). The worker has completed the HBV vaccination series and has a documented anti-HBs titer >10 mIU/mL one month ago. What is the recommended post-exposure prophylaxis?

Options:

A.

Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) only


B.

Hepatitis B vaccine booster dose only


C.

Both HBIG and HBV vaccine booster dose


D.

No treatment required


Expert Solution
Questions # 17:

A clinical microbiology laboratory is using isothermal nucleic acid amplification techniques for rapid detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum. Compared to conventional PCR, isothermal methods offer the advantage of:

Options:

A.

Higher sensitivity and specificity for detecting low levels of target DNA.


B.

Faster reaction times and the ability to be performed without sophisticated thermocyclers.


C.

The ability to simultaneously amplify multiple targets in a single reaction.


D.

Easier integration with downstream analysis techniques such as Sanger sequencing.


Expert Solution
Questions # 18:

A patient with HIV infection and a very low CD4+ T-cell count develops a disseminated infection with a fungus that is commonly found in pigeon droppings. The MOST likely causative agent is:

Options:

A.

Candida glabrata


B.

Cryptococcus gattii


C.

Cryptococcus neoformans


D.

Saccharomyces cerevisiae


Expert Solution
Questions # 19:

A patient with HIV infection and a CD4+ T-cell count below 100 cells/µL presents with headache, fever, and altered mental status. CSF analysis reveals elevated protein and low glucose. India ink stain is negative. Cryptococcal antigen test of the CSF is positive. The MOST appropriate initial treatment is:

Options:

A.

Amphotericin B and flucytosine


B.

Fluconazole


C.

Voriconazole


D.

Caspofungin


Expert Solution
Questions # 20:

Microscopic examination of a trichrome-stained stool smear reveals amoebic trophozoites approximately 25 µm in diameter, containing ingested red blood cells. The nucleus, when visible, has fine, evenly distributed peripheral chromatin and a small, central karyosome. These features are diagnostic for:

Options:

A.

Entamoeba coli


B.

Entamoeba histolytica


C.

Endolimax nana


D.

Iodamoeba bütschlii


Expert Solution
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