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Abbreviated interview consists of informal and ad hoc interviews. Answer: D is incorrect. Substantial interview consists of informal and structured interviews. Answer: A is incorrect. Comprehensive interview consists of formal and structured interviews. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such type of interview in NIST SP 800-53A.

An informative policy informs employees about certain topics. It is not an enforceable policy, but rather one to teach individuals about specific issues relevant to the company. The informative policy can explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in different situations. Answer: D is incorrect. A regulatory policy ensures that an organization follows the standards set by specific industry regulations. This type of policy is very detailed and specific to a type of industry. The regulatory policy is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, public utilities, and other government-regulated industries, e.g., TRAI. Answer: B is incorrect. An advisory policy strongly advises employees regarding which types of behaviors and activities should and should not take place within the organization. It also outlines possible ramifications if employees do not comply with the established behaviors and activities. The advisory policy can be used to describe how to handle medical information, handle financial transactions, and process confidential information. Answer: C is incorrect. It is not a valid type of policy.

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

SIEM product has a graphical user interface (GUI) which is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems. A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface that allows people to interact with programs in more ways than typing commands on computers. The term came into existence because the first interactive user interfaces to computers were not graphical; they were text- and-keyboard oriented and usually consisted of commands a user had to remember and computer responses that were infamously brief. A GUI offers graphical icons, and visual indicators, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation to fully represent the information and actions available to a user. The actions are usually performed through direct manipulation of the graphical elements.

Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint Answer: A is incorrect. Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is Microsoft's solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to. A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine who defines the security policy. Answer: D is incorrect. Access Management is used to grant authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage User Access Requests Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.

General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices:

Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.

The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company's operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed. Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.

A trademark is a mark that is used by a company to distinguish its products from those of other companies. There are various ways a company uses its trademark to distinguish its products from others. It can use words, letters, numbers, drawings, pictures, and so on, in its trademark. Answer: D, A, and C are incorrect. There is no such mark as product mark, business mark, or sales mark.

Passive OS fingerprinting can identify attacks originating from a botnet. Network Administrators can configure the firewall to take action on a botnet attack by using information obtained from passive OS fingerprinting. Passive OS fingerprinting (POSFP) allows the sensor to determine the operating system used by the hosts. The sensor examines the traffic flow between two hosts and then stores the operating system of those two hosts along with their IP addresses. In order to determine the type of operating system, the sensor analyzes TCP SYN and SYN ACK packets that are traveled on the network. The sensor computes the attack relevance rating to determine the relevancy of victim attack using the target host OS. After it, the sensor modifies the alert's risk rating or filters the alert for the attack. Passive OS fingerprinting is also used to improve the alert output by reporting some information, such as victim OS, relevancy to the victim in the alert, and source of the OS identification. Answer: D is incorrect. A BPF-based filter is used to limit the number of packets seen by tcpdump; this renders the output more usable on networks with a high volume of traffic. Answer: B is incorrect. Recipient filtering is used to block messages on the basis of whom they are sent to. Answer: C is incorrect. IFilters are used to extract contents from files that are crawled. IFilters also remove application-specific formatting before the content of a document is indexed by the search engine.