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Malicious file execution is a vulnerability that occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions. This leads to arbitrary remote and hostile data being included, processed, and invoked by the Web server. Malicious file execution can be prevented by using an indirect object reference map, input validation, or explicit taint checking mechanism. Answer: D is incorrect. Injection flaw occurs when data is sent to an interpreter as a part of command or query. Answer: A is incorrect. Insecure cryptographic storage occurs when applications have failed to encrypt data. Answer: C is incorrect. Insecure communication occurs when applications have failed to encrypt network traffic.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as "secret", he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: B is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. Answer: A is incorrect. Role-based access control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.

CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. Answer: A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client-side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, depending on the sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable site, and the nature of any security mitigations implemented by the site owner. Answer: C is incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal operation of the system on which the cryptography is implemented. Answer: B is incorrect. Injection flaws are the vulnerabilities where a foreign agent illegally uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker's hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.

The 'Do' cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the 'Plan' cycle component of PDCA.

The vulnerability, port, and network scanning tools are used in penetration testing. Vulnerability scanning is a process in which a Penetration Tester uses various tools to assess computers, computer systems, networks or applications for weaknesses. There are a number of types of vulnerability scanners available today, distinguished from one another by a focus on particular targets. While functionality varies between different types of vulnerability scanners, they share a common, core purpose of enumerating the vulnerabilities present in one or more targets. Vulnerability scanners are a core technology component of Vulnerability management. Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and application. Network scanning is a penetration testing activity in which a penetration tester or an attacker identifies active hosts on a network, either to attack them or to perform security assessment. A penetration tester uses various tools to identify all the live or responding hosts on the network and their corresponding IP addresses. Answer: C is incorrect. This option comes under vulnerability scanning.

The concept of authentication establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are. Answer: B is incorrect. The concept of availability ensures the reliable and timely access to data or resources. Answer: D is incorrect. The concept of integrity ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. Answer: C is incorrect. The concept of accountability determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it is signed by use of a cryptographic hash. Answer: A is incorrect. A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: B is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.

C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.

There are three goals of risk management as follows: Identifying the risk Assessing the impact of potential threats Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure Answer: C is incorrect. Identifying the accused does not come under the scope of risk management.