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Pass the Cisco CCNP Security 350-701 Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Viewing questions 1-15 out of questions
Questions # 1:

What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?

Options:

A.

the ability to see all traffic without requiring TLS decryption


B.

visibility into IP-based threats by tunneling suspicious IP connections


C.

the ability to dynamically categorize traffic to previously uncategorized sites


D.

visibility into traffic that is destined to sites within the office environment


Expert Solution
Questions # 2:

An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the

endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Port Bounce


B.

CoA Terminate


C.

CoA Reauth


D.

CoA Session Query


Expert Solution
Questions # 3:

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor


B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD


C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor


D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic


Expert Solution
Questions # 4:

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

Options:

A.

transparent


B.

redirection


C.

forward


D.

proxy gateway


Expert Solution
Questions # 5:

Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve the number of devices known to a DNA Center?

Options:

A.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device/count


B.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device


C.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/networkdevice?parameter1=value ¶meter2=value&....


D.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v 1/networkdevice/startIndex/recordsToReturn


Expert Solution
Questions # 6:

Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

Question # 6


Expert Solution
Questions # 7:

What are two differences between a Cisco Secure Web Appliance that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.


B.

When the Cisco Secure Web Appliance is running in transparent mode, it uses the Secure Web Appliance's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.


C.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.


D.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.


E.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.


Expert Solution
Questions # 8:

In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

Options:

A.

Smurf


B.

distributed denial of service


C.

cross-site scripting


D.

rootkit exploit


Expert Solution
Questions # 9:

Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DDoS


B.

antispam


C.

antivirus


D.

encryption


E.

DLP


Expert Solution
Questions # 10:

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management


B.

allowed application management


C.

Active Directory group policy management


D.

network device management


E.

critical device management


Expert Solution
Questions # 11:

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

exploits


B.

ARP spoofing


C.

denial-of-service attacks


D.

malware


E.

eavesdropping


Expert Solution
Questions # 12:

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan


B.

point-in-time checks


C.

advanced sandboxing


D.

advanced scanning


Expert Solution
Questions # 13:

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

Options:

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.


B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.


C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.


D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.


Expert Solution
Questions # 14:

A network administrator needs a solution to match traffic and allow or deny the traffic based on the type of application, not just the source or destination address and port used. Which kind of security product must the network administrator implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Next-generation Intrusion Prevention System


B.

Next-generation Firewall


C.

Web Application Firewall


D.

Intrusion Detection System


Expert Solution
Questions # 15:

A network engineer must configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway to prompt users to enter two forms of information before gaining access. The Secure Email Gateway must also join a cluster machine using preshared keys. What must be configured to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway CLI.


B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway CLI.


C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway GUI.


D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway GUI.


Expert Solution
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