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Pass the APICS CPIM CPIM-8.0 Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 7 out of 11 pages
Viewing questions 91-105 out of questions
Questions # 91:

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

Options:

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)


B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)


C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics


D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed


Expert Solution
Questions # 92:

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

Options:

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)


B.

Standard deviation


C.

Tracking signal


D.

Variance


Expert Solution
Questions # 93:

The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Egregious Eleven, a list of common threats to organizations using cloud services. According to the CSA Egregious Eleven, which of the following cases falls under the category of misconfiguration and inadequate change control?

Options:

A.

Having a public-facing website with Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) encoding enabled.


B.

Exposure of data stored in cloud repositories.


C.

Username and password are sent using a POST in plain text.


D.

Unsecured data storage elements or storage containers.


Expert Solution
Questions # 94:

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6


B.

3


C.

2


D.

1


Expert Solution
Questions # 95:

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Review logs of all user's social media activity.


B.

Review the organizational social media policy.


C.

Initiate the organization's incident response plan.


D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.


Expert Solution
Questions # 96:

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that specific data is protected?

Options:

A.

Custodian


B.

Data owner


C.

Data controller


D.

System owner


Expert Solution
Questions # 97:

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes


B.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual's transactions


C.

The potential for exposing an organization's sensitive business information


D.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers


Expert Solution
Questions # 98:

An organization has determined that it needs to retain customer records for at least thirty years to discover generational trends in customer behavior. However, relevant local regulation requires that all Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is deleted after expiration of the customer's engagement with the organization, which is usually no longer than one year. How should the data be handled at the expiration of customer engagement at one year?

Options:

A.

Because the data contains PII, it should be backed up in an encrypted form, with the encryption key securely kept in a Hardware Security Module (HSM), and all access logged and monitored.


B.

The data should be deleted from the customer website, and archived to a write-once, read-many drive to securely meet the business requirement for analytics.


C.

PII portion of the data should be tokenized or deleted, and the rest of the data stored securely to meet the business requirement for analytics.


D.

Since legal and regulatory compliance takes priority over business requirements, the data should be deleted.


Expert Solution
Questions # 99:

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks


B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks


C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in


D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry


Expert Solution
Questions # 100:

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.


B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.


C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.


D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.


Expert Solution
Questions # 101:

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list


B.

Manual registration


C.

Proxied federation


D.

Signed assertion


Expert Solution
Questions # 102:

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

Options:

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)


B.

Standard deviation


C.

Tracking signal


D.

Variance


Expert Solution
Questions # 103:

An organization experienced multiple compromises of endpoints, leading to breaches of systems and data. In updating its strategy to defend against these threats, which of the following BEST considers the organization’s needs?

Options:

A.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)


B.

Zero Trust (ZT) threat modeling


C.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)


D.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)


Expert Solution
Questions # 104:

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina


B.

Facial recognition


C.

Iris


D.

Hand geometry


Expert Solution
Questions # 105:

During a security incident investigation, a security analyst discovered an unauthorized module was compiled into an application package as part of the application assembly phase. This incident occurred immediately prior to being digitally signed and deployed using a deployment pipeline.

Which of the following security controls would BEST prevent this type of incident in the future?

Options:

A.

Invoke code repository vulnerability scanning on a regularly scheduled basis.


B.

Implement Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) in each component of the deployment pipeline.


C.

Encrypt the application package after being digitally signed.


D.

Implement a software Bill of Materials (BOM) for each application package.


Expert Solution
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Viewing questions 91-105 out of questions