APICS CPIM-8.0 Exam Questions Free Practice Test

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Questions # 61:

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

Expert Solution

Questions # 62:

A security team is analyzing the management of data within the human resources systems, as well as, the intended use of the data, and with whom and how the data will be shared. Which type of assessment is the team MOST likely performing?

Options:

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

Vulnerability assessment

Sensitive data assessment

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) risk assessment

Expert Solution

Questions # 63:

A newly hired Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is now responsible to build a third-party assurance for their organization. When assessing a third-party, which of the following questions needs to be answered?

Options:

How many employees the third-party employs?

Which level of support does the third-party provide related to security?

What is the monetary value of the third-party contract?

To which standards does the third-party need to be assessed?

Expert Solution

Questions # 64:

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

Enforces information security policies

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

Supports locating security components at end of life

Enforces network security access controls

Expert Solution

Questions # 65:

What is the BEST item to consider when designing security for information systems?

Options:

The comprehensive level of assurance required

The jurisdiction of the information system

The security requirements of the board

The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

Expert Solution

Questions # 66:

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

Options:

Half-duplex

Simplex

Unicast

Full-duplex

Expert Solution

Questions # 67:

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

Options:

Head of human capital

Head of compliance

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Expert Solution

Questions # 68:

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

List and evaluate IAM available products.

Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

Evaluate business needs.

Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.

Expert Solution

Questions # 69:

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

Expert Solution

Questions # 70:

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the various types of software installed on an endpoint?

Options:

Active network scanning

Passive network scanning

Authenticated scanning

Port scanning

Expert Solution

Questions # 71:

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

Options:

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

Expert Solution

Questions # 72:

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization's wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

Options:

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Captive web portal

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Token authentication

Expert Solution

Questions # 73:

An organization recently created a new accounting department, and that department is critical in the event of a disaster for the operations to continue. Which steps should the organization take to create a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

Options:

Test, maintain, implement, deliver, and execute

Plan, implement, execute, deliver, and document

Understand, plan, deliver, implement, and execute

Understand, plan, deliver, test, and maintain

Expert Solution

Questions # 74:

An organization needs a firewall that maps packets to connections and uses Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) header fields to keep track of connections. Which type of firewall will be recommended?

Options:

Network

Stateless

Stateful

Packet

Expert Solution

Questions # 75:

The primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to Its master production schedule (MPS) item is to:

Options:

revise the rough-cut capacity plan.

reschedule a related component on the shop floor.

check the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items.

determine if a customer order will be impacted.

Expert Solution

Answer

Explanation

The primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to its master production schedule (MPS) item is to determine if a customer order will be impacted. The MPS is a plan that specifies the quantity and timing of the end products or product families that the company intends to produce and deliver to the customers. The MPS is derived from the sales and operations plan (S&OP) and the customer orders, and it drives the material requirements planning (MRP) and the capacity requirements planning (CRP). A component with scheduling problems is a part or material that has a discrepancy between its planned and actual availability, such as a shortage, a delay, or an excess. Tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item means identifying which end product or product family uses that component in its bill of materials (BOM), and how the component’s availability affects the production and delivery of that end product or product family. This helps to determine if a customer order will be impacted by the component’s scheduling problem, and to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact, such as rescheduling, expediting, substituting, or communicating with the customer. The other options are not correct, as they are not the primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, but rather possible actions or outcomes of the tracing process:

Revising the rough-cut capacity plan is a possible action that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component’s availability affects the capacity of the critical resources that are needed to produce the MPS item. Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) is a process of verifying the feasibility of the MPS in terms of the available capacity of critical resources, such as key machines or labor skills. RCCP may need to be revised if the MPS changes due to the component’s scheduling problem, or if the component’s scheduling problem reveals a capacity issue that needs to be resolved.

Rescheduling a related component on the shop floor is a possible action that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component’s availability affects the production sequence or priority of other components that are used in the same MPS item. Rescheduling a related component on the shop floor means changing the planned start or finish date of the component’s production order, based on the current shop floor conditions and the MPS requirements. Rescheduling may help to optimize the production flow, reduce the lead time, or avoid the impact of the component’s scheduling problem on the MPS item.

Checking the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items is a possible outcome that may result from tracing a component with scheduling problems to its MPS item, if the component’s availability reveals an error or inconsistency in the bills for the MPS items. Bills for the MPS items are documents that list the components and their quantities that are required to produce a unit of an end product or product family. Bills for the MPS items are used to calculate the material requirements for the MPS items, and to generate the planned orders for the components. Checking the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items means verifying that the bills reflect the correct and current product structure, specifications, and quantities, and that they are consistent with the actual production process and the customer orders. References:

[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 1 - Sales and Operations Planning]

[CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 2 - Capacity Planning]

Master Production Schedule (MPS)

What is a Component? | Definition, Types, & Examples

Tracing a Component to Its MPS Item

Rough Cut Capacity Planning (RCCP)

[Rescheduling]

[Bill of Materials (BOM)]

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