Pass the CSI Canadian Securities Course IFC Questions and answers with CertsForce

A Canadian equity index fund would be the most tax-efficient option for Xerxes. A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of Canadian stocks that track a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index. A Canadian equity index fund would be tax-efficient for Xerxes because it would generate mostly capital gains and eligible dividends, which are taxed at lower rates than interest income or foreign dividends. A Canadian equity index fund would also have low turnover and minimal distributions, which would defer taxes until Xerxes sells his units. The other options are less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund. A target date fund is a type of mutual fund that adjusts its asset allocation over time based on a predetermined retirement date. A target date fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher turnover and more distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. A target date fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, such as bonds and foreign equities, which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. A bond fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of fixed-income securities, such as government bonds, corporate bonds, and mortgage-backed securities. A bond fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would generate mostly interest income, which is taxed at the highest rate among different types of investment income. A bond fund would also have regular distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of other mutual funds that cover different asset classes, such as stocks, bonds, and cash equivalents. An asset allocation fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher fees and more distributions, which would reduce the net returns and trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, some of which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. References: [Canadian Equity Index Funds], [Tax-Efficient Investing], [Target Date Funds], [Bond Funds], [Asset Allocation Funds]

The life-cycle hypothesis suggests that as people move through different life stages, their objectives, financial circumstances, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge change. Advisors can use this framework to make general assumptions about investment objectives based on age and stage (e.g., younger investors focus on short-term goals, older investors on retirement and estate building).

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

 Dollar-cost averaging is a strategy that involves investing equal amounts of money at regular intervals, regardless of the price of the security. By using dollar-cost averaging, investors may lower their average cost per share and reduce the impact of volatility on their portfolios. However, this strategy does not guarantee a better purchase price than making a lump-sum purchase. In this case, David got his 500 units at a higher price than the lump sum price he would have paid. His average cost per unit was $14.65, while the lump sum price was $14.10. Therefore, D is the correct answer. References: What Is Dollar-Cost Averaging?, What Is Dollar Cost Averaging?, Dollar-Cost Averaging: Definition and Examples

A lower standard deviation indicates lower volatility and thus lower risk. Fund B, with a standard deviation of 2%, is less risky than Fund A, with a standard deviation of 5%. The feedback from the document states:

"We can find the probable range of returns as follows: Average Return + Standard deviation = Positive outcome. Average Return - Standard deviation = Negative outcome. In any given year Fund A, which has the higher standard deviation, could fluctuate much more widely, making it less attractive as an investment, even over the long-term. Volatility is the most common measure of risk."

A mutual fund dealing representative must complete a training program within 90 days of starting to act in that role and be closely supervised for six months. The feedback from the document states:

"All mutual fund dealing representatives are required to complete a training program within 90 days from the day that they first start acting as a dealing representative and must be closely supervised for six months."

Current yield and effective yield are two ways of measuring the total return for money market funds. Current yield reflects the income earned on a money market fund for the most recent 14 day period, annualized. Effective yield incorporates the compounding effect of reinvesting the income earned on a money market fund over a year. Both current yield and effective yield are displayed in the performance reports of money market funds, as they provide different information to investors.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 4: Money Market Instruments, Section 5.4.3: Total Return for Money Market Funds1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.4.3 2

Bonds and debentures are both types of debt instruments that can be issued by corporations or governments to raise capital. However, they differ in the way they are secured. Bonds are backed by the specific assets of the issuer, such as property, equipment, or inventory. This means that if the issuer defaults on the bond payments, the bondholders have a claim on those assets and can sell them to recover their money. Debentures, on the other hand, are not secured by any real assets or collateral. They are only backed by the general creditworthiness and reputation of the issuer. This means that if the issuer defaults on the debenture payments, the debenture holders have no recourse to any specific assets and have to rely on the issuer’s ability to pay from its future earnings or liquidation proceeds.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.1

The market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the yield of similar shares. Annual dividend = $0.25 × 4 = $1.00. Price = $1.00 / 0.035 = $28.57. The feedback from the document states:

"The current market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend in dollars by the annual yield currently offered on preferred shares of a similar level of risk. In this case, the share would be valued as: ($0.25 × 4) / 0.035 = $28.57."