Pass the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Questions and answers with CertsForce

The correct answer is B. Analyze the error logs.

Error logs are files that record the events and errors that occur on a server or a network device. They can provide valuable information about the cause and the time of the outage, as well as any warnings or alerts that preceded it. Analyzing the error logs can help the administrator narrow down the possible sources of the problem and identify the best course of action to resolve it.

The first step in troubleshooting a network is to identify the problem1. As a part of this step, the administrator should gather information about the current state of the network using the network troubleshooting tools that are available1. One of these tools is the error log viewer, which can be accessed through the server’s operating system or a network monitoring software. The administrator should look for any entries that indicate a failure, a crash, a timeout, or an exception in the error logs. The administrator should also note the date and time of the entries, as well as the severity and the frequency of the errors.

The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:

•Documenting the results is an important step in troubleshooting, but it should be done after identifying and resolving the problem, not before. Documenting the results can help the administrator keep track of the actions taken, the changes made, and the outcomes achieved. It can also help prevent future problems by providing a reference for best practices and lessons learned1.

•Checking the physical connections is another important step in troubleshooting, but it should be done after analyzing the error logs, not before. Physical connections are the cables and ports that link the server to other devices on the network. They can affect the quality and stability of the network signal. If the error logs do not indicate any software or configuration issues, then checking the physical connections can help determine if there is any damage or interference in the hardware2.

•Upgrading the server firmware is a possible solution for some network problems, but it should not be done as a first step in troubleshooting, unless there is a clear indication that the firmware is outdated or corrupted. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic functions of a hardware device. Upgrading the firmware can improve performance, security, and compatibility, but it can also introduce new bugs or conflicts with other software or hardware components. Therefore, upgrading the firmware should be done with caution and only after backing up data and settings3.

For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot network issues, you can visit these links:

•A Guide to Network Troubleshooting - CompTIA

•What is Network Troubleshooting? How to Fix Network Issues - SolarWinds

•Network Troubleshooting - Methodology, Steps & Techniques - DNSstuff

The correct answer is B. 22.

Port 22 is the default port for SSH (Secure Shell), a protocol that allows secure and encrypted remote login and command execution over a network. SSH uses public key cryptography to authenticate the client and the server, and to encrypt the data exchanged between them. SSH can be accessed through different ports, depending on the configuration of the server and the client. The default port for SSH is 22, but it can be changed to any other port for security reasons1.

Port 20 is the default port for FTP (File Transfer Protocol) data transfer, a protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network. FTP uses two ports: one for data transfer (port 20) and one for control commands (port 21). FTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it is vulnerable to various attacks, such as packet sniffing, spoofing, or brute force. To secure FTP connections, protocols such as FTPS (FTP over SSL) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) can be used2.

Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, a protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network. Telnet does not provide encryption or authentication, and it sends data in plain text, which can be easily intercepted or modified by attackers. Telnet is considered obsolete and insecure, and it should be replaced by SSH or other secure protocols3.

Port 25 is the default port for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), a protocol that allows sending and receiving email messages over a network. SMTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it can be exploited by spammers or hackers to send malicious or unwanted emails. To secure SMTP connections, protocols such as SMTPS (SMTP over SSL) or STARTTLS (Transport Layer Security) can be used.

Therefore, port 22 is the only port that allows for secure communications by default, as it uses SSH protocol. For more information about ports and their security, you can refer to the following web search results: How to secure your TCP/IP ports, What is an SSL port? A technical guide for HTTPS, HTTPS Port: What It Is, How to Use It, and More (2023).

A hotspot is a feature that allows a phone to share its cellular data connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. This can be useful when traveling on a train, where Wi-Fi networks may not be available or reliable. A hotspot can provide internet access to a laptop or other devices that need to connect to the web.

Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, usually within 10 meters. It can be used to pair devices such as headphones, speakers, keyboards, mice, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.

Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that allows devices to exchange data by touching or bringing them close together, usually within 4 cm. It can be used for applications such as contactless payments, smart cards, digital tickets, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.

Roaming is a feature that allows a phone to use another carrier’s network when the home network is not available. This can be useful when traveling abroad, where the home network may not have coverage or agreements with local operators. However, roaming can incur additional charges and may not provide the same speed or quality of service as the home network. Roaming does not affect the ability of the phone to share internet access with other devices via hotspot.

The correct answer is C. Cat 6.

An RJ45 connector is a standard type of physical connector for network cables. RJ45 connectors are used almost exclusively with Ethernet cables and networking1. Ethernet cables are twisted pair cables that carry data signals between devices on a network, such as computers, routers, switches, and servers2.

There are different categories of Ethernet cables, such as Cat 5, Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 7, that have different specifications and performance levels. Cat 6 is one of the most common types of Ethernet cables, which supports data transfer speeds up to 10 Gbps and bandwidth up to 250 MHz3. Cat 6 cables have four pairs of copper wires, each with a plastic insulation and a foil or braided shield. The wires are twisted together to reduce crosstalk and interference4.

To terminate a Cat 6 cable, an administrator needs to use an RJ45 connector that matches the wiring scheme of the cable. There are two common wiring schemes for Ethernet cables: T568A and T568B. The administrator needs to strip the cable jacket, untwist the wires, arrange them in the correct order according to the chosen scheme, trim the excess wire, and insert them into the RJ45 connector. Then, the administrator needs to use a crimping tool to secure the wires and the connector4.

Optical cables are not terminated with RJ45 connectors, but with different types of connectors that can transmit light signals, such as SC, ST, LC, or MTRJ connectors. Optical cables are used for fiber-optic networks that can carry data over long distances at high speeds.

Serial cables are not terminated with RJ45 connectors, but with different types of connectors that can transmit serial data signals, such as DB9, DB25, or DE9 connectors. Serial cables are used for connecting devices that use serial communication protocols, such as modems, printers, scanners, or keyboards.

USB cables are not terminated with RJ45 connectors, but with different types of connectors that can transmit universal serial bus data signals, such as USB-A, USB-B, USB-C, or Micro-USB connectors. USB cables are used for connecting devices that use USB communication protocols, such as flash drives, cameras, mice, or chargers.

The correct answer is B. Serial.

A serial cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use serial communication, which is a method of sending data one bit at a time over a single wire. Serial cables are often used for console access to network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, or servers, when other methods of connection, such as SSH (Secure Shell), are not available or not working.

A DB9 connector is a type of connector that has nine pins and is commonly used for serial cables. DB stands for D-subminiature, which is a family of connectors that have a D-shaped metal shield and different numbers of pins. DB9 connectors are also known as DE-9 connectors, as they belong to the E size category of D-subminiature connectors. DB9 connectors can support various serial standards, such as RS-232, RS-422, or RS-485.

A parallel cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use parallel communication, which is a method of sending data multiple bits at a time over multiple wires. Parallel cables are often used for connecting printers or scanners to computers, but they are not commonly used for network devices or serial connections.

An optical cable is a type of cable that can be used to transmit data using light signals over fiber-optic strands. Optical cables can offer high-speed, high-bandwidth, and low-interference data transmission over long distances. Optical cables are often used for network communication, such as Ethernet, or audio/video transmission, such as HDMI or TOSLINK.

A USB cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard, which is a protocol that allows data and power transmission between devices. USB cables can support various types of devices, such as keyboards, mice, cameras, flash drives, or chargers. USB cables have different versions and connectors, such as USB-A, USB-B, USB-C, or Micro-USB.

Therefore, the only cable that uses a DB9 connector is a serial cable. For more information about cables and connectors, you can refer to the following web search results: [What Is a Serial Cable?], [What Is a Parallel Cable?], [What Is an Optical Cable?], [What Is a USB Cable?].

M.2 SSD and NVMe interface are the best options for storage devices and interfaces that provide the best performance. M.2 SSD is a form factor that allows for faster data transfer and lower power consumption than traditional SATA SSDs. NVMe is a protocol that enables direct communication between the SSD and the PCIe bus, bypassing the SATA controller and reducing latency and overhead. Together, they offer the highest speed and efficiency for storage devices.

Cable internet service is delivered through coaxial cables that are shared among multiple customers in a neighborhood. This means that the bandwidth may vary depending on the network congestion. Fiber, NIC, and DSL are not copper-based or shared mediums.

Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.

Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.

Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.

Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts​.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is an interface protocol built especially for Solid State Drives (SSDs) to utilize the high-speed PCIe bus in computers. M.2 is a form factor that is commonly used for NVMe SSDs due to its compact size and direct connection to the PCIe interface, which is ideal for laptops. The 2.5" and 3.5" form factors are more commonly associated with SATA drives, and SD is a form factor used for removable flash memory cards, not for internal storage solutions like NVMe SSDs.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) software often controls access to corporate resources based on location, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.

Option A: GPS is used for location services, not access control.

Option C: WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.

Option D: NFC enables close-range communication — irrelevant to app access.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

When a laptop screen is not displaying on a conference room TV despite being connected to a wireless HDMI dongle, the issue is often related to the TV being set to the wrong input source. Since the in-room computer's desktop is displayed, it suggests the TV is currently set to the input source used by the in-room computer. Changing the TV's input source to the one associated with the wireless HDMI dongle connected to the user's laptop is the simplest and most direct approach to resolve the issue. This does not involve adjusting network settings or hardware configurations but rather selecting the correct input source through the TV's input selection menu.

To make sure that the new operating system on the USB drive loads automatically, the user must configure the boot options in the BIOS/UEFI. Boot options determine the sequence of devices the computer will attempt to boot from when powered on. Setting the USB drive as the first boot option ensures that the system will load from the USB before trying other devices.

D. Boot options: The user should configure the boot sequence to prioritize the USB drive, so the system boots from it automatically.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. BIOS password: A BIOS password is used to restrict access to the BIOS settings, not to control boot order.

B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM): TPM is a security feature used for cryptographic operations and securing hardware, not for controlling boot options.

C. USB permissions: This refers to access permissions for USB devices but does not affect booting from a USB drive.

This concept is part of the Hardware domain in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam, specifically regarding BIOS configuration​.

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.

Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.

Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.

Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.

A Private Cloud is operated solely for a single organization. It is hosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance — often hosted in the organization’s own local data center.

Option B (Public): Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

Option C (Hybrid): Combines private and public cloud resources.

Option D (Community): Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Liquid cooling is an effective solution for managing the high heat output that can result from overclocking a GPU. It's more efficient than air cooling methods (like larger heat sinks or fan upgrades) and can better maintain lower temperatures under load, reducing the risk of overheating.

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) segments a physical network into separate logical networks, enhancing security by isolating traffic.

Why Not A (Minimizes collision domains): VLANs manage broadcast domains, not collision domains.

Why Not B (Provides private access to cloud resources): VLANs operate within a local network, not cloud-specific.

Why Not C (Increases network address space): VLANs do not affect address space.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 2.6, VLAN concepts​.

USB devices rely on 5V output from the power supply, so the amperage rating at 5V is critical to ensure enough power is available for multiple USB devices. A modular connector count affects cable management, while a 20+4 power connector is standard for motherboard connections. Energy efficiency impacts overall power usage but is not specific to the needs of USB devices. This matches CompTIA A+ Core 1 objectives regarding power supply selection based on device requirements.

A sandbox in virtualization allows testing an application in an isolated environment to observe its behavior without affecting the host system.

Why Not A (Run an application on multiple workstations): This describes application virtualization, not sandboxing.

Why Not C (Migrate a legacy application): This is about virtualization for legacy support, not testing.

Why Not D (Create a firewall): A firewall does not act as a sandbox for application testing.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 4.2, virtualization and sandboxing​.