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Pass the Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Viewing questions 61-70 out of questions
Questions # 61:

A 72-year-old man reports that his wife says he has hearing trouble. Examination reveals that air conduction on the right side is less than on the left side and greater than bone conduction bilaterally. He hears a tuning fork placed on the top of his head better with his left ear. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Options:

A.

Computed tomography scan of the head.


B.

Audiometry.


C.

Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior fossa.


D.

Wax removal from the ears by irrigation.


E.

Hearing aid.


Expert Solution
Questions # 62:

A new patient, a 19-year-old man, presents to your office with low back pain. He has a history of opioid dependence and is now on a methadone maintenance treatment program. He is requesting opiate analgesics. After examination, you decide not to prescribe opiates for pain control. The patient gets upset and threatens to file a complaint with your licensing authority. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Prescribe a small amount of oral opiate.


B.

Give a single opiate injection.


C.

Direct him to his methadone management program.


D.

Call the police to have the patient removed from the office.


E.

Send him for a lumbar spinal radiography.


Expert Solution
Questions # 63:

A 45-year-old man with a developmental delay and a history of disruptive behavior presents to the clinic looking for his family doctor. He is well known to the clinic. He appears drunk and has accidentally broken 2 large beer bottles in the waiting room but remains calm. The office staff requests your help to deal with this situation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial step?

Options:

A.

Call the police, given the patient ' s presentation.


B.

Instruct the office staff to ignore him and let him calm down.


C.

Tell the patient that his behavior is unacceptable and ask him to leave.


D.

Assess the patient promptly.


E.

Call the social work crisis intervention team.


Expert Solution
Questions # 64:

A 29-year-old woman presents with vaginal spotting after 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She is asymptomatic otherwise. Serum β-hCG is 2150 IU/L, and pelvic ultrasound shows an empty uterus. She has been trying to conceive for 7 months. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Repeat pelvic ultrasonography in 10 days.


B.

Perform dilatation and curettage for chorionic villi.


C.

Administer intramuscular methotrexate.


D.

Arrange exploratory laparoscopy.


E.

Repeat serum β-hCG test in 48 hours.


Expert Solution
Questions # 65:

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, consults you at 36 weeks’ gestation regarding newborn care. She has HIV. Which one of the following is the best advice regarding reducing the risk for transmission of HIV to her newborn?

Options:

A.

Bottle-feed her newborn boiled expressed breast milk.


B.

Avoid kissing her newborn.


C.

Formula-feed her newborn.


D.

Bottle-feed her newborn expressed breast milk.


E.

Breastfeed her newborn during the colostrum period only.


Expert Solution
Questions # 66:

A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has no significant medical history. He is anxious and agitated, and he reports severe central chest pain that began about 90 minutes ago. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 200/110 mm Hg, heart rate 140/min, respiratory rate 30/min, oxygen saturation 98% on supplemental oxygen. Physical examination reveals a restless and slightly tremulous man. Pupils are 7 mm reactive. There are no focal neurologic signs. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia; findings are otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?

Options:

A.

Alcohol.


B.

Heroin.


C.

Cocaine.


D.

Cannabis.


E.

Oxycodone.


Expert Solution
Questions # 67:

A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the office. The girl has had intermittent lower abdominal pain, constipation, and difficulty voiding for 3 months. She says that she is not sexually active. She looks well. She has reached age-specific developmental milestones, and her vital signs are within normal range. On abdominal examination, she is found to have a palpable suprapubic mass that persists after voiding. The girl says that her older sister started having menstrual periods at this age. The patient is surprised that hers have not started. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Examination of external genitalia.


B.

Abdominal radiography.


C.

Measurement of serum human chorionic gonadotropin.


D.

Pelvic ultrasonography.


E.

Urinalysis.


Expert Solution
Questions # 68:

An otherwise healthy 21-year-old college student is brought to the Emergency Department after falling from the rooftop terrace of a night club. A grade III splenic laceration measuring 3 cm is identified on computed tomography scan. You elect to manage the patient non-operatively with close monitoring, repeat examinations and hemoglobin levels. A repeat computed tomography at 48 hours shows no deterioration. Diet is resumed and over the next few days, the patient resumes ambulation. Which one of the following do you discuss with your patient prior to discharge?

Options:

A.

Plan an interval laparoscopic splenectomy within the next 6 weeks.


B.

Organize an angiography with possible embolization.


C.

Arrange weekly outpatient follow-up with repeat hemoglobin measurement.


D.

Vaccinate against encapsulated organisms.


E.

Recommend avoidance of vigorous activity for 3 months.


Expert Solution
Questions # 69:

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, aborta 0, has just delivered a full-term newborn via spontaneous vaginal delivery after 4 hours of labor. Following oxytocin administration and placental expulsion, there continues to be a steady trickle of bright red blood from her vagina. On examination, the placenta is intact and the fundus feels firm. Her vital signs are within normal range.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Uterine atony


B.

Vaginal or cervical tear


C.

Retained products of conception


D.

Uterine rupture


E.

Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy


Expert Solution
Questions # 70:

A 28-year-old woman presents because of spotting mid-menstrual cycle. Speculum examination reveals an ulcerated endocervical polyp. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?

Options:

A.

Cryotherapy.


B.

Colposcopy.


C.

Serial cytology.


D.

Polypectomy.


E.

Punch biopsy.


Expert Solution
Viewing page 7 out of 11 pages
Viewing questions 61-70 out of questions