Spring Sale Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: simple70

Pass the Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 2 out of 11 pages
Viewing questions 11-20 out of questions
Questions # 11:

An otherwise healthy 43-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a left breast mass. Six months ago, she underwent a bilateral breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) after watching a television program on breast cancer prevention. An ultrasound-guided biopsy of a 1.5 cm mass confirmed, at the time, that she had fibroadenoma. The follow-up ultrasound now reveals a mass measuring 1.7 cm. Which one of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

Options:

A.

Repeat the biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.


B.

Proceed with needle-localized left lumpectomy.


C.

Order a MRI of both breasts to rule out anything else.


D.

Administer prophylactic tamoxifen to decrease the risk of cancer.


E.

Reassure the patient and reassess in 12 months.


Expert Solution
Questions # 12:

A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Perform endovascular repair of the thoracic and abdominal aorta.


B.

Conduct open repair of the thoracic and abdominal aorta.


C.

Initiate intravenous labetalol.


D.

Start intravenous heparin.


E.

Admit the patient to the Intensive Care Unit and repeat CT in 6 hours.


Expert Solution
Questions # 13:

A 56-year-old woman with a 4-year history of fibromyalgia presents for follow-up. She reports that she is struggling with her health and daily life. She is unhappy with her lack of progress and says she feels tired all the time and stays in bed all day. When asked why, she states she is confused about why she is not getting better. Physical exam and investigations are unchanged from baseline. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Prescribe cannabinoid therapy


B.

Initiate iron and vitamin B12 supplementation


C.

Educate the patient about her illness


D.

Start a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor


Expert Solution
Questions # 14:

A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Arrange for a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.


B.

Prescribe vaginal metronidazole gel.


C.

Start vaginal estrogen.


D.

Wash the pessary and recommend a daily saline douche.


E.

Perform a vaginal biopsy.


Expert Solution
Questions # 15:

A 56-year-old woman presents to your office with a 9-month history of intolerable sweating, palpitations, and periodic anxiety. Her last period was 12 months ago. She continues to have regular Papanicolaou testing with no worrisome pathology. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following is the most effective treatment for these symptoms?

Options:

A.

Regular exercise, weight loss and smoking cessation


B.

Estrogen in combination with progesterone


C.

Evening primrose oil


D.

Antidepressant agent


E.

Low-dose clonidine


Expert Solution
Questions # 16:

A 43-year-old man is referred to you for an incidental finding of elevated hemoglobin. Laboratory results are as follows:

Hemoglobin

185 g/L (130-170)

Mean corpuscular volume

92 fL (60-100)

White blood cells

7.8×1037.8×103 / L (4-10)

Platelets

250×103250×103 / L (130-400)

His BMI is 23. He has type 2 diabetes for which he takes gliclazide MR 60 mg daily. Which one of the following features on history could explain his laboratory abnormality?

Options:

A.

Hypertension


B.

Alcohol abuse


C.

Hypothyroidism


D.

Cirrhosis


E.

Central sleep apnea


Expert Solution
Questions # 17:

A 1-week-old boy born at full term is brought by his parents to the office with a 2-day history of eye swelling and watery discharge. This morning, the discharge became thick and yellow. On physical exam, he is afebrile and fussy with bilateral eyelid edema, purulent discharge, and erythematous conjunctivae. After taking appropriate cultures of the eyes, which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Admit the patient and start antibiotic therapy


B.

Prescribe an oral antibiotic and reassess in 48 hours


C.

Reassure the parents and prescribe a topical antibiotic


D.

Advise warm compresses every 2 to 3 hours until discharge is cleared


E.

Recommend lacrimal sac massage


Expert Solution
Questions # 18:

A 62-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, fever and chills. She was hospitalized 4 weeks ago for sigmoid diverticulitis. She felt well after her discharge from hospital until 5 days ago when the fever started. She is now anorexic. On examination, she has right upper quadrant pain and her temperature is 38.5 °C. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Chest radiography.


B.

Abdominal radiography.


C.

Ultrasound of abdomen.


D.

Cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan).


E.

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography.


Expert Solution
Questions # 19:

A 37-year-old man presents with chronic back, neck, and shoulder pain following a workplace injury 4 years ago. He has a history of alcohol misuse and PTSD related to the incident. Current medications (acetaminophen, naproxen, amitriptyline, gabapentin) provide inadequate pain relief. He requests oxycodone after self-trialing it with temporary benefit. After history and physical assessment, which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Ordering repeat imaging of the spine and shoulder to confirm the diagnosis.


B.

Prescribing a low-dose, long-acting opioid and reassessing in 1 week for effectiveness.


C.

Prescribing a short course of a short-acting opioid to be used only as needed.


D.

Referring the patient to substance use and mental health support services.


E.

Prescribing cannabis.


Expert Solution
Questions # 20:

A 91-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department reporting blood in his stools, which has now resolved. He is able to give a history and mentions that this also happened 2 years ago. At that time, a colonoscopy was done and revealed diverticular disease as the cause. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Options:

A.

Perform a computed tomography colonoscopy.


B.

Order a fecal immunochemical test (FIT).


C.

Reassure him that a colonoscopy does not need to be repeated.


D.

Recommend a surgical resection of the diverticular disease.


E.

Discuss the issue with his family before making a decision.


Expert Solution
Viewing page 2 out of 11 pages
Viewing questions 11-20 out of questions