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Pass the IIA CIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Viewing questions 16-30 out of questions
Questions # 16:

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

Options:

A.

To better understand and influence executives' planning.


B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.


C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.


D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.


Expert Solution
Questions # 17:

Who is responsible for ensuring internal auditors continuing professional development*

Options:

A.

Individual internal auditors


B.

Chief audit executive.


C.

The board


D.

Engagement supervisors


Expert Solution
Questions # 18:

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.


B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.


C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.


D.

A management action plan.


Expert Solution
Questions # 19:

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies


B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits


C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year


D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits


Expert Solution
Questions # 20:

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.


B.

The process risks


C.

The process controls


D.

The process scope


Expert Solution
Questions # 21:

Which of the following is the primary reason an internal auditor would issue an interim report during an engagement?

Options:

A.

To provide a status update on a short engagement to management of the area under review and to the audit supervisor.


B.

To confirm agreement with preliminary observations and conclusions identified during the engagement.


C.

To provide those responsible for the area under review with the opportunity to act on certain observations immediately.


D.

To verify that the corrective actions required by senior management are completed as agreed.


Expert Solution
Questions # 22:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity


B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.


C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.


D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors


Expert Solution
Questions # 23:

During an audit of suspense accounts the internal auditor found that there were no written policies on how suspense accounts should be treated. The auditor also found that suspense account balances were cleared once per week, not daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate first response by the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should conclude that suspense accounts were not being cleared on a timely basis because they should be cleared daily


B.

The auditor should ask management whether any undocumented policies exist and. if so, determine whether they are adequate


C.

The auditor should conclude that the clearing of suspense accounts was timely and appropriate because weekly clearing is sufficient.


D.

The auditor should rely on his professional judgment and experience to develop criteria for evaluating the existing controls over suspense accounts


Expert Solution
Questions # 24:

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.


B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.


C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.


D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.


Expert Solution
Questions # 25:

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model


B.

Center of competence model.


C.

Rotational model.


D.

Hybrid model


Expert Solution
Questions # 26:

Which of the following is one of the five basic tnanoal statement assertions when an internal auditor evaluates controls over financial reporting?

Options:

A.

Reliability or appropriateness


B.

Reasonableness


C.

Existence or occurrence


D.

Relevance


Expert Solution
Questions # 27:

An examination of the accounts payable function evidenced multiple findings with respect to segregation of duties. After management's response and action plan are received and documented in the final report, which of the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Follow up after the applicable changes have been incorporated to validate management’s response.


B.

Include the items in the scope of the next scheduled audit of the accounts payable function.


C.

Because management agreed with the findings, no further action is deemed necessary.


D.

Have an internal audit staff member placed into the accounting department until corrections are made.


Expert Solution
Questions # 28:

An internal auditor performed a review that focused on the organization’s process for vetting vendors. The internal auditor’s testing identified that 120 out of 130 vendors had a business relationship with the organization’s procurement manager that violated conflict-of-interest policies. Which of the following conclusions could the internal auditor draw from these results?

Options:

A.

The organization is exposed to significant fraud and abuse risks as a result of the vendor and employee business relationships.


B.

Due to improper relationships and favoritism, vendors are not providing goods or services at a reasonable price to meet the objectives.


C.

The organization’s conflict-of-interest policies are not clear or well communicated throughout the organization.


D.

Improper relationships and favoritism means that controls are not effective and significant fraud occurs.


Expert Solution
Questions # 29:

While reviewing warehouse inventory records, an internal auditor noticed that the warehouse has a surprisingly high number of products in storage. Over the past three years, the auditor had visited this particular warehouse numerous times for previous engagements and remembered that the warehouse was rather small. The auditor then decided to compare the square footage of the warehouse to the recorded number of products in storage. The auditor’s action is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Performing a reasonableness test.


B.

Conducting a fraud investigation.


C.

Conducting trend analysis.


D.

Operating with impaired objectivity.


Expert Solution
Questions # 30:

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.


B.

Requests from senior management and the board.


C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.


D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.


Expert Solution
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