Pass the FINRA General Securities Representative SIE Questions and answers with CertsForce

A corporate bond purchased at par value costs $1,000. If the bond is convertible into 40 shares of the issuer’s common stock, the investor’s per-share cost basis is calculated by dividing the bond’s cost by the number of shares received upon conversion. $1,000 divided by 40 shares equals $25 per share. Choice A is correct. Choice B incorrectly uses the number of shares as the dollar answer. Choice C and choice D are mathematical distractors that do not reflect the conversion calculation. Convertible bonds allow bondholders to exchange the bond for a specified number of common shares, giving the investor fixed-income characteristics plus potential equity upside. The conversion ratio is the number of shares received for each bond. The conversion price is effectively the bond’s par value divided by the conversion ratio. The SIE outline includes corporate bonds, convertible features, par value, and equity securities. This question tests the relationship between par value and conversion ratio. Reference: Understanding Products and Their Risks; Debt Instruments; Corporate Bonds; Convertible Features.

Repeatedly booking trades in customer accounts, canceling them, and then rebooking them into different customer accounts is a red flag for unauthorized trading or improper allocation of trades. The conduct suggests that trades may not have been placed with proper customer authorization or may have been shifted among accounts after execution. Choice D is the best answer among the choices provided. Front running involves trading ahead of a customer order or block transaction to benefit from expected market movement. Insider trading involves trading while in possession of material nonpublic information. Money laundering involves disguising the source, ownership, or movement of illicit funds through placement, layering, and integration. The conduct described is more directly tied to improper account handling and lack of authorization. The SIE outline includes prohibited activities such as manipulative conduct, falsifying or withholding documents, improper books and records, and unauthorized conduct in customer accounts. It also covers order entry and execution practices, discretionary versus non-discretionary accounts, and customer account records. The technical concern is that a representative may not place or shift trades without proper customer authority and accurate records. Reference: Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts and Prohibited Activities; Prohibited Activities; Order Entry and Execution Practices.

The correct answer is A, Form U4. Form U4 (Uniform Application for Securities Industry Registration or Transfer) must be kept current at all times and updated promptly—generally within 30 days—whenever a registered representative experiences a reportable event, including criminal matters such as a guilty plea.

Step-by-step, a guilty plea to an investment fraud scheme is considered a material disclosure event, even if the misconduct occurred years earlier. The key factor is the date of the guilty plea, not when the underlying activity occurred. This triggers the obligation to update Form U4 so regulators (such as FINRA and the SEC) have accurate and current information about the individual’s disciplinary history.

Choice B, Form U5, is used when a registered representative leaves a firm and is not relevant to ongoing disclosures. Choice C, arbitration disclosure, pertains to dispute resolution records, not regulatory filings. Choice D, written supervisory procedures (WSPs), are internal firm compliance documents and do not relate to individual disclosure updates.

Thus, any criminal event such as a guilty plea must be reported through an updated Form U4 within 30 days, making Answer A correct.

Step by Step Explanation:

Rule 144 Holding Period: Restricted securities held by affiliates require a six-month holding period before sale, provided the issuer is subject to SEC reporting requirements.

Other Options:

Notification to FINRA (C) is incorrect; Form 144 is submitted to the SEC, not FINRA.

The 10% ADTV limitation (D) applies to the volume of shares sold, not the conditions for sale.

SEC Rule 144 (Selling Restricted Securities): SEC Rule 144.

Step by Step Explanation:

Discount Bonds: These are issued or traded below par value. Over time, their price moves closer to par as they approach maturity, assuming yields remain constant.

Other Options:

Par Value Changes: The par value of a bond does not change over time; only its price fluctuates.

SEC and FINRA Bond Basics: SEC Discount Bonds.

The Investment Company Act of 1940 includes governance requirements intended to protect fund shareholders by ensuring a meaningful degree of board independence. Limiting the percentage of “interested persons” on a fund’s board reduces the likelihood that the board will be dominated by individuals with material ties to the fund’s adviser, underwriter, or other service providers. The purpose is to mitigate conflicts of interest, which is why choice C is correct. An independent board is better positioned to oversee critical areas such as advisory contract approvals, fee reasonableness, compliance, and potential self-dealing risks.

Choice A (insider trading) is not the primary target of this board composition requirement. While good governance may indirectly discourage misuse of information, insider trading concerns are addressed through broader securities laws and compliance controls. Choice B (money laundering) is addressed through AML programs and customer identification procedures at financial institutions and broker-dealers, not primarily through investment company board independence rules. Choice D (market manipulation) is also not the core focus of board independence; manipulation is addressed through trading and anti-fraud rules and market regulation rather than investment company board composition.

The SIE commonly tests the concept that investment companies are structured to protect investors through transparency, fiduciary oversight, and independent governance. By ensuring that a substantial portion of directors are “uninterested,” the Act helps prevent the adviser or affiliated parties from unduly influencing decisions that directly affect shareholder outcomes—particularly fees, expense arrangements, and conflicts between the fund’s interests and the adviser’s profit motive.

The Securities Act of 1933 requires securities offered to the public to be registered with the SEC unless they qualify for an exemption. Open-end investment companies (mutual funds) are not exempt and must register.

D is correct because mutual funds are publicly offered and require registration.

A is incorrect because private placements are exempt under Regulation D.

B is incorrect because municipal securities are exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

C is incorrect because U.S. government securities are also exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

Federal funds are overnight loans between banks, typically involving excess reserves held at Federal Reserve Banks. Banks with surplus reserves lend to banks that need reserves to meet regulatory reserve requirements or internal liquidity needs. The interest rate charged on these overnight loans is the federal funds rate, a key short-term interest rate that influences broader money market conditions, bank lending, and monetary policy transmission. Choice A is correct because the question specifically describes overnight interbank lending of excess reserves. Commercial paper is an unsecured short-term debt instrument issued by corporations to meet working capital needs, not an overnight reserve loan between banks. “Money market loans” is too general and is not the precise SIE term. Bankers’ acceptances are short-term instruments used primarily in trade finance, especially international commerce. The SIE outline includes the Federal Reserve, monetary policy, interest rates, the federal funds rate, and money market instruments as core capital markets topics. This question tests the candidate’s ability to identify a specific short-term banking and monetary-policy instrument. Reference: Section 1.3.1 Federal Reserve Board’s Impact on Business Activity and Market Stability; Section 2.1.2 Debt Instruments.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 3210: Requires registered representatives to obtain written consent from their employing broker-dealer before opening accounts at other financial institutions if securities transactions will occur.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and C: These accounts are exempt because they do not involve direct securities transactions requiring monitoring.

FINRA Rule 3210 (Accounts at Other Institutions): FINRA Rule 3210.

The correct answer is B, $2,100. Cost basis represents the total amount invested in a security, including reinvested dividends. It is critical for determining capital gains or losses when the investment is eventually sold.

Step 1: Calculate the initial investment. The investor buys 100 shares at $20, resulting in:

100 × $20 = $2,000

Step 2: Calculate the dividend received. The investor receives a $1 per share dividend on 100 shares:

100 × $1 = $100

Step 3: Determine reinvestment. The $100 dividend is reinvested at $25 per share. This purchases:

$100 ÷ $25 = 4 additional shares

Step 4: Adjust cost basis. Even though the investor now owns more shares (104 total), the key point is that reinvested dividends are added to the cost basis because they are treated as new investments. Therefore:

$2,000 (original investment) + $100 (reinvested dividend) = $2,100

The reinvestment price does not change the total cost basis amount—only the number of shares acquired. Thus, the investor’s total cost basis after reinvestment is $2,100, making choice B correct.