Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination Part 1 Exam MCCQE Question # 57 Topic 6 Discussion
MCCQE Exam Topic 6 Question 57 Discussion:
Question #: 57
Topic #: 6
A 68-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of multiple tender joints. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2°C and swelling and redness of his left large toe. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
This patient presents with acute onset of joint pain, fever, and classic involvement of the first metatarsophalangeal joint (podagra) with swelling and erythema. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing the characteristic presentation of crystal-induced arthropathy , particularly gout. Gout commonly affects older men and presents with sudden, severe monoarthritis, often involving the great toe. Systemic symptoms such as low-grade fever may occur during acute attacks.
Viral arthritis typically causes symmetric polyarthritis without marked erythema of a single joint. Osteoarthritis presents with chronic, non-inflammatory joint pain and minimal warmth or redness. Psoriatic arthritis is usually associated with psoriasis, nail pitting, or dactylitis. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents as chronic, symmetric small-joint polyarthritis rather than acute podagra.
Although this patient reports multiple tender joints, the prominent inflamed great toe is classic for gout, and polyarticular involvement can occur, especially in older individuals. Diagnosis is ideally confirmed by joint aspiration showing monosodium urate crystals. Initial management includes NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids.
Contribute your Thoughts:
Chosen Answer:
This is a voting comment (?). You can switch to a simple comment. It is better to Upvote an existing comment if you don't have anything to add.
Submit