Pass the ASCP MLT(ASCP) ASCP-MLT Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 1 out of 12 pages
Viewing questions 1-15 out of questions
Questions # 1:

Which of the following organizations has developed standards to maintain the performance of the clinical laboratory at the highest standards for quality care?

Options:

A.

Joint Commission


B.

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid


C.

Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute


D.

Occupational Safety and Health Administration


Questions # 2:

Lipids tend to form a "maltese cross" pattern when viewed in polarized light, which helps to differentiate them from other urine microscopic components.

Substances found in urinary sediment that are more easily distinguished by use of polarized microscope are:

Options:

A.

WBC


B.

RBC


C.

Casts


D.

Lipids


E.

Crystals


Questions # 3:

The blood glucose value is critical; negative ketones is consistent with type 2 diabetes. An elderly type 2 diabetic patient is at risk for hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma and osmolality should be measured.

A measurement of urine glucose would not be useful at this point.

A 70-year-old type 2 diabetic patient is comatose and in the emergency department. Stat blood glucose and serum ketones are ordered.

Blood Glucose: 650 mg/dL

Serum Ketones: Negative

What is the best conclusion?

Options:

A.

Glucose result is acceptable for type 2 diabetic patient


B.

Because of the glucose and ketone result, the patient now has type 1 diabetes


C.

The glucose result is critical and the patient should be evaluated for hyperosmolality


D.

Urine glucose should be measured


Questions # 4:

The term affinity refers to the strength of attraction between a single antigenic determinant and a corresponding antigen binding site. The term avidity refers to the total strength of the attraction between an antibody and a multivalent antigen. The reaction between an IgM molecule (which has 10 antigen binding sites), and a multivalent antigen is therefore much stronger than that of an IgG antibody (which has only 2 antigen binding sites).

Avidity is best described by which of the following statements:

Options:

A.

The strength with which red cells agglutinate


B.

The strength with which multivalent antigens and antibodies bind


C.

The strength with which univalent antigens and antibodies bind


D.

The speed with which an antigen-antibody reaction occurs


Questions # 5:

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

Red to Brown Urine: porphobilinogen, hematuria, myoglobinuria, etc.

Green: Food colorings; Increased carotene in the diet;

Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

Yellow: bilirubin, bile pigments

White: phosphates, other crytals

Match urine color with substance that might have been responsible:

1. Phosphates

2. Bilirubin

3. Pseudomonas

4. Porphobilinogen

Options:

A.

Blue to green


B.

White


C.

Red to brown


D.

Yellow


Questions # 6:

Waived tests are those considered to have an insignificant risk of erroneous results. Which of the following is NOT an example of a waived test?

Options:

A.

rapid strep tests from throat swabs


B.

sodium


C.

HIV antibodies


D.

prothrombin time


Questions # 7:

Which specimen should be collected last?

Question options:

Options:

A.

Specimen requiring special handling


B.

Clotted specimen


C.

Fasting specimen


D.

STAT specimen


Questions # 8:

The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute initiated the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) in 1985. The goal was to reduce the number of Americans with elevated cholesterol and thus reduce illnesses and deaths in the United States due to coronary heart disease. Three adult treatment panels have been published since then with clinical practice guidelines for managing cholesterol levels in adults.

The most recent panel, Adult Treatment Panel III (ATP III), was published in 2001 and updated in 2004. The NCEP: ATP III also includes criteria for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NCEP: ATP III criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis.

Options:

A.

LDL-C, triglycerides, HDL-C, and fasting blood glucose


B.

Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, insulin, and VLDL


C.

Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C


D.

Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C, and VLDL


Questions # 9:

The red portion of the NFPA diamond represents fire hazards. The fire classification system for NFPA is as follows:

0 - Will not burn

1 - Must be preheated for ignition; flashpoint above 200°F (93°C)

2 - Must be moderately heated for ignition, flashpoint above 100°F (38°C)

3 - Ignition may occur under most ambient conditions, flashpoint below 100°F (38°C)

4 - Extremely flammable and will readily disperse through air under standard conditions, flashpoint below 73°F (23°C)

A laboratory labels its secondary containers of hazardous chemicals using a color-coded system, with a different color representing each different type of hazard. The coding system follows the color-coding used by the National Fire Protection Agency's "fire diamond." What hazard would be represented by the red section on the hazard label?

Options:

A.

Health hazard


B.

Fire hazard


C.

Reactivity hazard


D.

Special hazards


Questions # 10:

The laboratory uses flammable chemicals for processing and staining patient specimens. One type of chemical used is ethanol. What is the proper way to store this chemical in the laboratory?

Options:

A.

On the shelf with other hazardous chemicals


B.

Under the sink in the laboratory


C.

In a flame-resistant cabinet


D.

In the back of the fume hood


Questions # 11:

The parents will each give one of their ABO genes, so the possibilities are as follows:

AB, AO, AB, AO = 50% chance of A blood type, 50% chance of AB blood type

Blood Bank

If parents have the blood group genotypes AA and BO, what is the possibility of having a child with a blood type of A?

Options:

A.

25%


B.

50%


C.

75%


D.

100%


E.

none of them


Questions # 12:

Waived tests are those considered to have an insignificant risk of erroneous results. Which of the following is NOT an example of a waived test?

Options:

A.

fructosamine


B.

spun hematocrit


C.

blood glucose by home meters


D.

potassium


Questions # 13:

Which one of the following conditions is NOT associated with hereditary spherocytosis?

Options:

A.

Increased osmotic fragility


B.

An MCHC greater than 37%


C.

Intravascular hemolysis


D.

Extravascular hemolysis


Questions # 14:

The two main areas of the clinical laboratory are:

Options:

A.

cytology and histology.


B.

chemistry and hematology.


C.

urinalysis and microbiology.


D.

anatomical and clinical.


Questions # 15:

In this case, with the pre-incubation aPTT mixing study result "corrected" and the post-incubation aPTT mixing study result "not corrected", a coagulation inhibitor should be suspected. Both anti-factor VIII and lupus anticoagulant have been known to be slow-acting and can exhibit this result pattern. If a factor deficiency was present, we should not see a post-incubation prolongation.

Hematology

What may cause the following mixing studies results?

Initial aPTT = 133 seconds

1:1 Mix aPTT pre-incubation = 33 seconds

1:1 Mix aPTT post-incubation = 124 seconds

Options:

A.

Factor IX deficiency


B.

Factor XI deficiency


C.

A slow acting coagulation inhibitor


Viewing page 1 out of 12 pages
Viewing questions 1-15 out of questions