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Pass the Checkpoint CCSA R82 156-215.82 Questions and answers with CertsForce

Viewing page 4 out of 6 pages
Viewing questions 31-40 out of questions
Questions # 31:

Which statement best describes Trusted Clients?

Options:

A.

These are trusted administrators allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole


B.

These are specific devices or IP addresses allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole


C.

These are Security Gateways allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole


D.

These are trusted users allowed to connect to the Security Management Server using SmartConsole


Expert Solution
Questions # 32:

What is the default Implicit Cleanup Action in both Ordered and Inline Layers?

Options:

A.

Log


B.

Reject


C.

Drop


D.

Accept


Expert Solution
Questions # 33:

What is the role of the Security Management Server in the Check Point environment?

Options:

A.

To act as the first line of defense against cyberattacks


B.

To manage objects and policies


C.

To inspect inbound and outbound traffic


D.

To provide a web-based interface


Expert Solution
Questions # 34:

SmartConsole objects can represent _______.

Options:

A.

server, virtual, or cloud components


B.

networks, virtual, or cloud components


C.

physical, virtual, or logical network components


D.

networks, virtual, or logical network components


Expert Solution
Questions # 35:

What is the effect of enabling “Shared Layer” in an Inline Layer?

Options:

A.

It enables NAT translation


B.

It disables the layer in other policies


C.

It restricts access to the layer


D.

It allows the layer to be used in multiple rules and policies


Expert Solution
Questions # 36:

What are the two main processes of the Identity Awareness blade?

Options:

A.

Identity Decision Process (IDP)

Identity Direction and Accounting Process (IDAP)


B.

Pre-Deployment Process (PDP)

Pre-Enforcement Process (PEP)


C.

Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)


D.

Inter-Process Communication (IPC)

Remote-Process Communication (RPC)


Expert Solution
Questions # 37:

What is the primary benefit of Autonomous Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

It blocks all HTTPS traffic by default


B.

It replaces SSL/TLS with a proprietary protocol


C.

It accelerates encrypted traffic


D.

It simplifies and enhances cybersecurity management by automating the configuration and updating of security policies


Expert Solution
Questions # 38:

What is a best practice for managing SmartConsole administrator accounts?

Options:

A.

Allow unlimited concurrent sessions


B.

Limit the use of Super User accounts


C.

Use simple passwords


D.

Assign roles based on maximum privilege


Expert Solution
Questions # 39:

What is the main benefit of Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

It allows you to configure security policy based on the source or destination network and user agent.


B.

It allows you to configure security policy based user or machine identity.


C.

It allows you to configure security policy based on password length. RADIUS group membership and the source operating system.


D.

It allows you to configure security policy based on source network, destination network. LDAP Group membership and source operating system.


Expert Solution
Questions # 40:

What information does the Accounting option in Logs provide?

Options:

A.

The Accounting option records the number of times the same type of connection has been made in the last 24 hours (configurable) by default


B.

Enabling the Accounting option shows the amount of data passed in the connection including upload bytes, download bytes and browse time


C.

The Accounting option provides user accountability by associating a user identity with every log record


D.

The Accounting option tracks the amount of time required by the Firewall to process and pass the connection


Expert Solution
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