Pass the IIA CIA Challenge Exam IIA-CHAL-QISA Questions and answers with CertsForce

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Questions # 1:

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

1.Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

2.Determine whether an independent review of the service provider's operation has been conducted.

3.Verify that the service provider's contracts include necessary clauses.

4.Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider

Options:

A.

1 and 3.


B.

1 and 4


C.

2 and 3.


D.

2 and 4.


Questions # 2:

Applying ISO 31000; which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.


B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.


C.

The regulatory and competitive environment.


D.

The method of determining the risk level


Questions # 3:

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA’s mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer


B.

The board seeks senior managements recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.


C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit act/vity.


D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline


Questions # 4:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.


B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.


C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.


D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives


Questions # 5:

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

Options:

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.


B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.


C.

The authority of the CEO.


D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.


Questions # 6:

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed


B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.


C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.


D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program


Questions # 7:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.


B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by. or in conjunction with, the engagement client


C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.


D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment


Questions # 8:

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk.


B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management


C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is amore specific and subordinate concept


D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms


Questions # 9:

An internal auditor believes that the internal audit activity's independence is impaired Which of the following actions should the internal auditor take first?

Options:

A.

Report the impairment to senior management


B.

Discuss the impairment with the audit manager.


C.

Ascertain the best approach to disclose the impairment.


D.

Decide on the extent of impact of the impairment


Questions # 10:

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.


B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.


C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.


D.

Establish the internal audit activity's position within the organization in an audit charter


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