A 45-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of a sore left breast. It has become red and swollen. She was previously well, and her menstrual cycles are regular. She has no history of breast cancer, and she has no children. On examination, she has a red, tender, indurated area in her left breast that has only partially responded to oral antibiotics after 10 days. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Submit